Happy New Year 2012 to All of You

नव वर्ष की सभी को शुभकामनाएँ

( Happy New Year 2012 to All of You)

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वरिष्ठ संवाददाता, इलाहाबाद बेसिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा विज्ञापित 72,825 प्रशिक्षु अध्यापकों की नियुक्ति शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा टीईटी के संशोधित परिणाम के आधार पर होगी। इसके लिए जिन अभ्यर्थियों ने (टीईटी) के पुराने अंकपत्र के आधार पर आवेदन किया है, उन्हें दुबारा आवेदन नहीं करना पड़ेगा। माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद ने संशोधित परिणाम बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग को मुहैया करा दिया है। ऐसे में अभ्यर्थियों को उनके बढ़े अंकों का पूरा लाभ मिलेगा। यूपी बोर्ड ने इलाहाबाद हाईकोर्ट के आदेश के बाद शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा का संशोधित परिणाम गुरुवार को जारी किया था। इस परिणाम में प्राथमिक स्तर में एक से 6 अंकों का व उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर में एक से 10 अंकों का फायदा मिला है। किसी के अंक कम नहीं हुए हैं। इसके बाद अभ्यर्थियों को यह आशंका सताने लगी थी कि कहीं नियुक्ति पुराने परिणाम के आधार पर न कर दी जाए। माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद के सभापति संजय मोहन का कहना है कि संशोधित परिणाम की सीडी बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग को पहुंचा दी गई है। हाईकोर्ट के आदेश के बाद संशोधित परिणाम के आधार पर ही प्रशिक्षु अध्यापकों की मेरिट बनेगी। दरअसल, माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा 13 नवंबर को आयोजित शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा का परिणाम 25 नवंबर को घोषित किया गया था। परिणाम के बाद परिषद ने जो आंसर की जारी की गई, उसमें कई प्रश्न गलत थे, बल्कि बोर्ड एक ही प्रश्न के दो विकल्प बता रहा था। आयोग ने पहले तो अभ्यर्थियों की आपत्तियां लेने से ही इनकार कर दिया, पर दबाव बढ़ने पर आपत्तियां लेने का काम शुरू हुआ। आपत्तियां निस्तारित करने के दौरान परिषद ने पांच बार आंसर की में संशोधन किया। इसके बाद बोर्ड ने परीक्षा परिणाम में लगभग आठ बार संशोधन किया है। अंतिम संशोधन 22 दिसंबर को किया गया। टीईटी के नए रिजल्ट के आधार पर होगा चयन बेसिक शिक्षक भर्ती 6संशोधित रिजल्ट में बढ़े अंकों का अभ्यर्थियों को मिलेगा पूरा फायदा 6जो अभ्यर्थी पहले आवेदन कर चुके उन्हें दुबारा करने की जरूरत नहीं

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UPTET NEWS 2011

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अब शिक्षक भर्ती के आवेदन नौ तक

लखनऊ, 19 दिसंबर (जाब्यू) : शिक्षकों की भर्ती के लिए आवेदन की तारीख 19 दिसंबर से बढ़ाकर नौ जनवरी कर दी गई है। इस तारीख तक अभ्यर्थी प्रदेश के सभी जिलों के लिए आवेदन कर सकेंगे। सचिव बेसिक शिक्षा अनिल संत के अनुसार अभ्यर्थी पांच सौ रुपये के एक ही ड्राफ्ट के अधार पर प्रदेश के सभी जिलों में आवेदन कर सकेंगे। मूल जिले के अलावा अन्य जिलों के लिए उन्हें बैंक ड्राफ्ट के साथ ही आवेदन पत्र की स्वत: प्रमाणित फोटोकापी लगाना अनिवार्य होगा। अभ्यर्थियों में भ्रम बरकरार: हाई कोर्ट के आदेश के बाद शैक्षिक पात्रता परीक्षा के अभ्यर्थियों को सभी जिलों में आवेदन की अनुमति मिल जाने के बावजूद उनमें शासनादेश को लेकर भ्रम की स्थिति बनी हुई है। नए आदेश में कहा गया है कि जिस जिले में बैंक ड्राफ्ट लगाया गया है, वहां किए गए आवेदन व रजिस्ट्री-स्पीड पोस्ट की फोटोकापी स्वत: प्रमाणित करके अन्य जिलों के आवेदन में भेजी जाए। हजारों अभ्यर्थी पहले ही आवेदन कर चुके हैं। ऐसे में उन्हें भय है कि कहीं उनके आवेदन निरस्त न कर दिए जाएं। अभ्यर्थियों के अनुसार टीईटी में उन्हें शुरू से ही परेशानी का सामना करना पड़ा है। पहले घंटों कतार में खड़े होकर ड्राफ्ट बनवाए, फिर उन्हें निरस्त कराकर नए ड्राफ्ट बनवाने पड़े। ड्राफ्ट का खर्च दो बार उन्हें बर्दाश्त करना पड़ा। दैनिक जागरण पहुंचे अभ्यर्थियों का कहना था कि इससे बेहतर था कि काउंसिलिंग के समय ही उनसे बैंक ड्राफ्ट लिया जाता। तब इस तरह की समस्याओं का सामना न करना

UPTET NEWS 2011

संशोधित होंगी टीईटी की सभी आपत्तियां

वरिष्ठ संवाददाता, इलाहाबाद : माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद ने शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा की सभी आपत्तियां संशोधित करने की घोषणा की है। परिषद ने अभ्यर्थियों से संशोधन के लिए निर्धारित शुल्क के साथ आवेदन पत्र मांगे हैं। आवेदन के साथ संशोधन संबंधी दावे का प्रमाण संलग्न कराना आवश्यक है। आवेदन एक जनवरी 2012 के बाद नहीं स्वीकार किए जाएंगे। इस संबंध में इलाहाबाद हाईकोर्ट ने ललित मोहन सिंह बनाम उप्र व अन्य के खिलाफ दायर याचिका पर सुनवाई करने के बाद 16 दिसंबर को टीईटी में अभ्यर्थियों द्वारा की गई सभी आपत्तियों को निस्तारित करने कर आदेश दिया था। बोर्ड ने उसी आदेश के आलोक में अभ्यर्थियों की आपत्तियों व शिकायतों का निस्तारण करने के लिए यह कदम उठाया है। अभ्यर्थियों को आवेदन पत्र में अपना नाम, पिता का नाम, श्रेणी, क्रमांक, उत्तर पत्रक की सीरीज कोड एवं संख्या तथा परीक्षा केंद्र का नाम लिखना है। परिषद संशोधन के लिए आवेदन पत्र एक जनवरी सायं 5 बजे तक ही स्वीकार करेगा। आवेदन पत्र के साथ वांछित शुल्क के रूप में सचिव माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद उत्तर प्रदेश इलाहाबाद के पदनाम एवं बैंक ऑफ बड़ौदा, पीडी टंडन रोड इलाहाबाद में 100 रुपये का बैंकड्रॉफ्ट या इसी बैंक के खाता संख्या 06590200000197 में नकद भी जमा किया जा सकता है। आवेदन के साथ जमा की गई धनराशि की मूल रसीद संलग्न करना अनिवार्य होगा। लिफाफे के ऊपर मोटे अक्षरों में यूपीटीईटी-2011 की आपत्तियां लिखना अनिवार्य होगा।

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टीईटी की आपत्तियां निस्तारित करें

इलाहाबाद, 17 दिसंबर (जाका) : हाई कोर्ट ने शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (टीईटी) के घोषित परिणाम में अभ्यर्थियों की आपत्तियों के निस्तारण का निर्देश यूपी बोर्ड को दिया है। कोर्ट ने कहा कि अभ्यर्थी मात्र 100 रुपये प्रोसेस फीस देकर शिकायत 15 दिनों में दर्ज कराएं। कोर्ट ने चार समाचार पत्रों में इसकी सूचना प्रकाशित कराने को भी कहा है। न्यायालय ने बोर्ड को आपत्तियां प्राप्त होने के एक सप्ताह के भीतर इनका निस्तारण करने का निर्देश दिया है। साथ ही निस्तारण का आदेश ई-मेल व पंजीकृत डाक द्वारा भेजने को कहा है। न्यायालय ने स्पष्ट किया कि पूर्व में सफल अभ्यर्थियों के चयन पर इसका प्रभाव नहीं पड़ेगा, परंतु अंक बढ़ने पर उसका लाभ अवश्य मिलेगा। यह आदेश न्यायमूर्ति सुधीर अग्रवाल ने ललित मोहन सिंह व अन्य की याचिकाओं पर दिया है। याचिका में आरोप लगाया है कि एक ही अनुक्रमांक कई अभ्यर्थियों को आवंटित है। कुछ को अनुपस्थित दिखाया गया है। उत्तर पुस्तिका जांचते समय सीरीज व अंकपत्र में तालमेल नहीं है। कोर्ट ने निर्देश दिया कि बी सीरीज के प्रश्न संख्या 125 के उत्तर में विकल्प बी व सी दोनों सही हैं, इसलिए दोनों विकल्पों पर अंक दिया जाए। बी सीरीज के प्रश्न संख्या 142 पर ए व डी विकल्प चुनने वालों को भी अंक दिए जाएं।

संशोधनों के लिए दर-दर भटके छात्र

इलाहाबाद : माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा 13 नवंबर को आयोजित शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा में अभ्यर्थियों को शुरू से ही समस्याओं का सामना करना पड़ा। समस्या की शुरुआत आवेदन पत्रों से हुई और परीक्षा परिणाम आने के बाद तक जारी है। किसी ने अधिक अंक पाया लेकिन कम अंक मिले तो किसी का परीक्षा परिणाम ही नहीं आया। समस्याओं का अंतहीन सिलसिला अभी जारी है। हजारों की संख्या में आवेदन पत्र लौट आए, जबकि अभ्यर्थियों ने पर्याप्त समय रहते आवेदन किया था। हजारों के प्रवेश पत्रों में गड़बड़ी आ गई। किसी को प्राथमिक का प्रवेश पत्र मिला तो उच्च प्राथमिक का नहीं मिला।

List of all Bharat Ratna Winner

List of all Bharat Ratna Winner

1.Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan(1888–1975) 1954 Second President, First Vice President,Philosopher. Tamil Nadu

2.Chakravarti Rajagopalachari 98701878–1972 1954 Last Governor-General, Freedom Fighter. Tamil Nadu

3. C. V. Raman 1888–1970 1954 Nobel-prize winning Physicist Tamil Nadu

4. Bhagwan Das 1869–1958 1955 Philosopher, Freedom Fighter Uttar Pradesh

5. Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvarayya231 1861–1962 1955 Civil Engineer Karnataka

6. Jawaharlal Nehru 1889–1964231 1955231 First Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter, Author. Uttar Pradesh

7. Govind Ballabh Pant 1887–1961 1957 Freedom Fighter, Home Minister Uttar Pradesh

8. Dhondo Keshav Karve 1858–1962 1958 Educationist, Social Reformer Maharashtra

9. B. C. Roy 1882–1962 1961 Physician, Politician West Bengal

10. Purushottam Das Tandon 1882–1962 1961278904231 FreedomFighter, Educationalist. Uttar Pradesh

11. Rajendra Prasad 1884–1963 1962 First President, Freedom Fighter, Jurist Bihar

12. Zakir Hussain 1897–1969 1963 Former President, Scholar. Andhra Pradesh

13. Pandurang Vaman Kane 1880–1972 1963 Indologist and Sanskrit scholar Maharashtra

14. Lal Bahadur Shastri 1904–1966 1966 Posthumous, Second Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter Uttar Pradesh

15. Indira Gandhi 1917–1984 1971 Former Prime Minister Uttar Pradesh

16. V. V. Giri 1894–1980 1975 Former President, Trade Unionist. Andhra Pradesh

17. K. Kamaraj 1903–1975 1976 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, Chief Minister-Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu

18. Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu (Mother Teresa) 1910–1997 1980 Naturalized Indian citizen, Nobel Laureate (Peace, 1979). West Bengal

19. Acharya Vinoba Bhave 1895–1982 1983 Posthumous, Social Reformer, Freedom Figher. Maharashtra

20. Khan Abdu231l Ghaffar Khan 1890–1988 1987 First non-citizen, Freedom Fighter. Pakistan

21. M. G. Ramachandran 1917–1987 1988 Posthumous, Chief Minister-Tamil Nadu, Actor. Tamil Nadu

22. B. R. Ambedkar 1891–1956 1990 Posthumous, Architect-Indian Constitution, Leader of Buddhist people of India Maharashtra

23. Nelson Mandela b. 1918 1990 Second non-citizen and first non-Indian, Leader of Anti-Apartheid movement. South Africa

24. Rajiv Gandhi 1944–1991 1991 Posthumous, Former Prime Minister New Delhi

25. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 1875–1950 1991 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, First Home Minister of India. Gujarat

26. Morarji Desai 1896–1995 1991 Former Prime Minister, Freedom Fighter. Gujarat

27. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 1888–1958 1992 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, Educator. West Bengal

28. J. R. D. Tata 1904–1993 1992 Industrialist and philanthropist. Maharashtra

29. Satyajit Ray 1922–1992 1992 Legendary Indian Film Director West Bengal

30. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam b. 1931 1997 Former President, Scientist. Tamil Nadu

31. Gulzarilal Nanda 1898–1998 1997 Freedom Fighter, former Prime Minister. Punjab

32. Aruna Asaf Ali 1908–1996 1997 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter. West Bengal

33. M. S. Subbulakshmi 1916–2004 1998 Classical singer. Tamil Nadu

34. Chidambaram Subramaniam 1910–2000 1998 Freedom Fighter, Minister of Agriculture(Father of Green revolution). Tamil Nadu

35. Jayaprakash Narayan 1902–1979 1998 Posthumous, Freedom Fighter, Social Reformer. Uttar Pradesh

36. Ravi Shankar b. 1920 1999 Classical sitar player. west bengal

37. Amartya Sen b. 1933 1999 Nobel Laureate (Economics, 1998), Economist. West Bengal

38. Gopinath Bordoloi 1890–1950 1999 Posthumous, freedom fighter Assam

39. Lata Mangeshkar b. 1929 2001 Play back singer. Maharashtra

40. Ustad Bismillah Khan 1916-2006 2001 Classical Maestro Uttar Pradesh

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti PGT Recruitment Last Date : 13-Jan-2012

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti PGT Recruitment Last Date : 13-Jan-2012

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti(An Autonomous Organization under Ministry of HRD, Department of School Education & Literacy, Govt. of India)A-28, Kailash Colony, New Delhi - 110048

Last Date : 13-Jan-2012
Recruitment of Post Graduate Teachers (for Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS), an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy, Govt. of India, invites Online applications in the prescribed form, from eligible Indian nationals for filling up of vacancies and drawing a panel of candidates for the posts of Post Graduate Teachers from Gen./OBC/SC/ST Categories on Direct Recruitment Basis in the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas located in various districts of the country.

 

Trained Graduate Teachers (TGT):

• Subjects: English / Hindi / Physics/ Chemistry/ Mathematics / Economics/ Biology/ History/ Geography/ Commerce

• Pay Scale : Rs. 9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4800/-

• Upper Age Limit : 40 years as on 30/11/2011

Mode of Selection: There will be a written test on 19/02/2012 for the above mentioned posts.

How to Apply:

1. Apply Online at Navodaya website only. Last date of receiving Online application is 13/01/2012.
2. For GEN/OBC category, application must be accompanied by a fee of Rs. 500/- through Fee Payment Challan in favour of “Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti”. No fee fo SC/ST/PH and Women candidates.

Complete advertisement and a link to apply Only is available at -http://www.navodaya.nic.in/RecruitmentPGT2012/Main.htm .

UPTET 2011 NEWs

 

लखनऊ, जागरण ब्यूरो : बेसिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा संचालित प्राथमिक स्कूलों में शिक्षकों  नियुक्ति के लिए अभ्यर्थी अब मर्जी के मुताबिक जितने जिलों में चाहे आवेदन कर सकेंगे। शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति के लिए आवेदन की अंतिम तिथि 23 दिसंबर होगी। नियुक्ति के लिए अभ्यर्थियों को ऐच्छिक जिलों में आवेदन करने का विकल्प तो होगा लेकिन आवेदन शुल्क के रूप में सामान्य वर्ग के अभ्यर्थियों को अब सिर्फ एक जिले में 500 रुपये और अनुसूचित जाति/जनजाति के अभ्यर्थियों को 200 रुपये का बैंक ड्राफ्ट देना होगा। शेष जिलों में आवेदन करने के लिए उन्हें आवेदन पत्र के साथ बैंक ड्राफ्ट की फोटो प्रति संलग्न करनी होगी। बेसिक शिक्षा निदेशालय ने शासन को प्रस्ताव भेज दिया है। इस प्रस्ताव को कैबिनेट से मंजूरी दिलाने की कवायद चल रही है। शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति के सिलसिले में संशोधित विज्ञप्ति शनिवार को जारी होने की संभावना है। शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति के लिए बेसिक शिक्षा परिषद ने 30 नवंबर को प्रकाशित विज्ञप्ति में अभ्यर्थियों को पांच जिलों में आवेदन करने का विकल्प दिया गया था। सामान्य वर्ग के अभ्यर्थियों को प्रत्येक जिले में आवेदन पत्र के साथ 500 रुपये (एससी/एसटी के लिए 200 रुपये) का बैंक ड्राफ्ट संलग्न करना था। पांच जिलों में आवेदन कर चुके अभ्यर्थियों को चार जिलों में जमा किया गया आवेदन शुल्क वापस कर दिया जाएगा।

 

 

संयुक्त मेरिट बनाने की मांग

इलाहाबाद : आदर्श शिक्षक वेलफेयर एसोसिएशन के वरिष्ठ पदाधिकारियों की बैठक शुक्रवार को हुई। इसमें टीईटी परीक्षा, बढ़ती ठंड से होने वाली दिक्कत सहित शिक्षकों की अनेक समस्या पर चर्चा की गई। अध्यक्षता कर रहे प्रदेश अध्यक्ष रुद्र प्रभाकर मिश्र ने कहा कि यूपी टीईटी के आधार पर परिषदीय विद्यालयों में राज्यस्तर पर टीईटी व शैक्षिक योग्यता की संयुक्त मेरिट बनाकर एक फार्म भरवाना सर्वहित में होगा। उन्होंने कहा कि संशोधित विज्ञापन में सभी वर्गो के 50 प्रतिशत अंक पाने वाले टीईटी उत्तीर्ण अभ्यर्थियों को सहायक अध्यापक पद पर चयन के लिए आधार माना जाए। इसके साथ बढ़ती ठंड को देखते हुए परिषदीय विद्यालयों का समय साढ़े दस बजे से करने की मांग की गई। संचालन डॉ. एसपी सिंह ने किया। इस दौरान नीरज बाबू मिश्र, भारत भूषण मिश्र, मयंकधर मिश्र, सुरेंद्र पांडेय, डॉ. गीता रंजन, प्रीति सेठ, डॉ. अशोक तिवारी, नागेंद्र नाथ श्रीवास्तव आदि मौजूद थे।

NEWS BY JAGRAN

HPSSSB Various Posts incuding PGT Teacher

HPSSSB Various Posts incuding PGT Teacher Last Date : 12-01-2012

Himachal Pradesh Subordinate Services Selection Board (HPSSSB)

Hamirpur, District Hamirpur- 177001

Advertisement No. 22/2011 Dated: 13.12.2011
Last Date : 12-01-2012
Applications on the prescribed Proforma, in sealed covers, are invited for the following posts under the Government of Himachal Pradesh so as to reach the Secretary, Himachal Pradesh Subordinate Services Selection Board, Hamirpur (Himachal Pradesh) PIN-177001 on or before 12.01.2012. However, for the candidates residing in Lahaul & Spiti District, Kinnaur District, Pangi & Bharmour Sub-Divisions of Chamba District and Dodra Kwar Sub-Division of Shimla District of Himachal Pradesh, the last date for receipt of applications is 27.01.2012
Name of Post/ No. of Vacancies -

• Senior Scale Stenographer (On Contract basis) at minimum of the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+3800Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ :` 14100/- Per Month), No. of Posts- 01(UR)
• Sr. Assistant (Accounts) (On Contract basis) at minimum of the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+3800 Grade Pay.No. of Posts- 08 : Gen (UR)-05, Gen(IRDP/BPL)-01, OBC(UR)-01,SC(UR)-01
• Superintendent (Divisional Accounts) ( On Regular basis) in the Pay Band : ` 10900-34800+4550 Grade Pay, No. of Posts- 05 Gen (UR)-04, SC (UR)-01
• Clerks (On Contract basis) at minimum of the Pay Band of ` 5910-20200 + 1900 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 7810/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-336, Gen(IRDP/BPL)-64, Gen(WFF)-07, SC(UR)-144, SC(IRDP/BPL)-21, SC(WFF)-03
  ST(UR)-32, ST(IRDP/BPL)-07,OBC (UR)-127, OBC(IRDP/BPL)-22, OBC(WFF)-02, TOTAL - 765
• Lineman (On Contract basis) at minimum of the Pay Band of ` (6400-20200)+3050 Grade Pay, No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-16, Gen(IRDP/BPL)-05, OBC(UR)-07,OBC(IRDP/BPL)-01, ST(UR)-01, SC(UR)-08,SC(IRDP/BPL)-02, TOTAL - 40
• Junior Auditor (Contract Basis) at minimum of the Pay Band ` (10300-34800)+3800 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14100/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen(IRDP/BPL)-01,SC(UR)-01, TOTAL -2
• PGT (English) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-52, SC (UR)-24, ST (UR)-04, OBC (UR)-18,Gen (IRDP/BPL)-12, SC (IRDP/BPL)-05,ST(IRDP/BPL)-02, OBC (IRDP/BPL)-06, Gen(WFF)-02,OBC(WFF)-01, TOTAL - 126
• PGT (Commerce) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-41, SC (UR)-18, ST (UR)-05, OBC (UR)-17, Gen (IRDP/BPL)-10, SC (IRDP/BPL)-04,
  ST(IRDP/BPL)-01, OBC (IRDP/BPL)-04, Gen(WFF)-01,SC(WFF)-01, OBC(WFF)-01, TOTAL - 103
• PGT (Physics) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of `10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-07, SC (UR)-03, ST (UR)-01, OBC (UR)-03,Gen (IRDP/BPL)-02, OBC (IRDP/BPL)-01, TOTAL - 17
• PGT (Chemistry) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-10, SC (UR)-03, ST (UR)-02, OBC (UR)-04,Gen (IRDP/BPL)-02, SC(IRDP/BPL)-01, OBC (WFF)-01, TOTAL - 23
• PGT (Biology) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-10, SC (UR)-05, ST (UR)-01, OBC (UR)-03,Gen (IRDP/BPL)-03, SC(IRDP/BPL)-01, OBC
  (IRDP/BPL)-01, TOTAL - 24
• PGT (Music-Vocal) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-02, SC (UR)-01, OBC (UR)-01 Total = 04
• PGT (Music-Instrumental) (On contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay
  (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-02, OBC (UR)-01, Gen (IRDP/BPL)-01 Total =04
• PGT (Informatics Practices) ( On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+4200 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14500/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-312, SC (UR)-141, ST (UR)-28, OBC (UR)-121, Gen (IRDP/BPL)-78, SC (IRDP/BPL)-29,
  ST(IRDP/BPL)-10, OBC (IRDP/BPL)-29, Gen(WFF)-10,SC(WFF)-05, OBC(WFF)-04, TOTAL - 767
• Election Kanungo (On Contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 5910-20200+3000 Grade Pay. (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 8910/- Per Month), No. of Posts- OBC (UR)-01, TOTAL - 1
• Junior Engineer (Civil) (on contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+3800 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14100/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-04,SC(UR)-01,ST(UR)-02,OBC(UR)-04,SC(IRDP/BPL)-01, ST(IRDP/BPL)-01, OBC
  (IRDP/BPL)-01, Total = 14
• Junior Engineer (Electrical) (on contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10900-34800+4350 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14100/- Per Month), No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-14, Gen(IRDP/BPL)-03, SC(UR)-06,SC(IRDP/BPL)-01, ST(UR)-01, OBC(UR)-05,
  OBC (IRDP/BPL)-01, Total = 31
• Junior Engineer (Mechanical) (on contract basis) in the Pay Band of ` 10300-34800+3800 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 14100/- Per Month), No. of Posts- SC(UR)-01
  Total = 01
• Clerks (On Contract basis) in the Pay band of ` 6420- 20200+2300 Grade Pay., No. of Posts- Gen (UR)-15, SC(UR)-05, ST(UR)-01, OBC(UR)-04, Total = 25
• Steno Typist (on contract basis) in the pay band of ` 5910-20200+2000 Grade Pay, No. of Posts - Gen(UR)-1,Total = 01
• Junior Scale Stenographer (on contract basis) in the pay band of ` 5910-20200+2800 Grade Pay (Consolidated fixed contractual amount @ : ` 8710/- Per Month), No. of Posts - Gen(UR)-1,Total = 01
• Ayurvedic Pharmasist (on contract basis) in the pay Band of 5910-20200+3000 Grade Pay, No. of Posts - Gen(UR)- 102, Gen(IRDP/BPL) - 25, Gen(WFF) – 03, SC(UR)- 41, SC(IRDP/BPL)- 10, SC(WFF)-01, ST(UR)- 10, ST(IRDP/BPL)- 02, ST(WFF)- 01,OBC(UR)
  - 33, (OBC)(IRDP/BPL)- 08, OBC(WFF)- 01, Total = 237

How To Apply -
The candidate must apply on the prescribed Application form costing Rs. 170/- (For General Category) and Rs. 65/- (for reserved categories) obtainable from the Post Offices/ Sub-Post Offices and other authorized Sale Agents situated at various district head quarters and towns of H.P.
For complete details/application format - Click here

UPTET NEWS

NEW DATE TO APPLY UPTET -2011

UP TET (Teacher Eligibility Test) :- 3 days extra to submit application for Primary Teacher

असमंजस खत्म, नियुक्ति की राह हुई आसान

वरिष्ठ संवाददाता, इलाहाबाद : बेसिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा संचालित प्राथमिक स्कूलों में 72,825 शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति पर असमंजस की स्थिति अब खत्म हो गई है। आवेदन की तिथि तीन दिन आगे बढ़ाए जाने व मनचाहे जिलों से आवेदन करने की छूट से अभ्यर्थियों को चयन की ज्यादा संभावनाएं नजर आ रही हैं। अभ्यर्थियों का मानना है कि अब शायद चयन प्रक्रिया पूरी हो जाएगी। हालांकि, इतने कम समय में आवेदन पत्रों की छंटाई और चयन प्रक्रिया पूरी कर पाना कठिन लग रहा है। जिला शिक्षा एवं प्रशिक्षण संस्थान इलाहाबाद के प्राचार्य संजय सिन्हा ने बताया कि आवेदनों की छंटाई का काम जारी होने से ज्यादा दिक्कत नहीं आएगी। सभी जिलों से आवेदन करने की छूट के कारण आवेदनों की संख्या जरूर बढ़ेगी पर उससे भी निपटने का पूरा इंतजाम है। मंडलायुक्त/जिलाधिकारी को इस संबंध में अवगत करा दिया गया है। यदि जरूरी हुआ तो आवेदन पत्रों की छंटाई आदि के लिए अतिरिक्त कर्मचारी मिल जाएंगे। इस संबंध में प्रशासन को प्रार्थना पत्र लिख दिया गया है। चयन प्रक्रिया में कोई समस्या नहीं आएगी। उधर, हाईकोर्ट के फैसले को लेकर दिनभर यूपी बोर्ड दफ्तर पर अभ्यर्थियों का जमावड़ा लगा रहा। सब अधिकारियों से हाईकोर्ट के फैसले और बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग के आगे की रणनीति की जानकारी लेने की कोशिश में लगे रहे। हर अभ्यर्थी के अंदर यही उत्सुकता दिखी कि अब आगे क्या होगा। गौरतलब है कि इलाहाबाद हाईकोर्ट की एकल खंडपीठ ने विगत 12 दिसंबर को शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति के लिए बेसिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा 30 नवंबर को प्रकाशित की गई विज्ञप्ति को रद करने का आदेश दिया था। इससे चयन प्रक्रिया तीन दिनों तक बाधित रही।

News : Jagran

UPTET Merit Counseling Online with Special software, 1st phase counselling possible on 23rd/24th December 2011

 
टीईटी: मेरिट की मशक्कत होगी आसान

(सहारनपुर, :प्राथमिक शिक्षकों की नियुक्ति को जिला शिक्षा एवं प्रशिक्षण संस्थान द्वारा मेरिट की मशक्कत जल्द ही आसान हो जाएगी। बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग द्वारा तैयार कराए गए स्पेशल साफ्टवेयर संस्थान को उपलब्ध होगा। इसके अलावा प्रदेश भर के डायट में एक ही तिथि में काउंसिलिंग का कार्यक्रम तैयार किया जा रहा है। आवेदन-पत्र के साथ विभाग ने टीईटी की इंटरनेट मार्कशीट स्वीकार करने के लिए डायट को निर्देश जारी कर दिए हैं।
स्वीकार होगी इंटरनेट मार्कशीट
निदेशक बेसिक शिक्षा दिनेश चंद्र कन्नौजिया द्वारा डायट को भेजे निर्देशों में कहा गया है कि आवेदन पत्र के साथ टीईटी की इंटरनेट मार्कशीट स्वीकार की जाए। डायट प्राचार्य संजय उपाध्याय ने इसकी पुष्टि की है।
साफ्टवेयर दिलाएगा छुटकारा
बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग ने डायट को आवेदन पत्रों की फीडिंग व मेरिट के झंझट से छुटकारा दिलाने के लिए स्पेशल साफ्टवेयर तैयार कराया है। विभागीय सूत्रों के मुताबिक विभाग द्वारा डायट को एक सीडी में टीईटी (प्राथमिक परीक्षा) उत्तीर्ण करने वाले 2 लाख 70 हजार 806 अभ्यर्थियों का डाटा होगा, जबकि दूसरी सीडी में एजेंसी द्वारा तैयार स्पेशल साफ्टवेयर होगा। डायट को ये दोनों सीडी कंप्यूटर में लोड करनी होंगी। सूत्र बताते हैं कि इसके बाद डायट को अभ्यर्थी का पूरा डाटा फीड नहीं करना पड़ेगा। उदाहरण के लिए विकास कुमार का रोल नंबर 2001088 है। इसे कंप्यूटर में फीड करते ही कुल उत्तीर्ण अभ्यर्थियों की सूची में से विकास कुमार का डाटा स्वत: ही अलग फाइल में सेव हो जाएगा। खास बात है कि ये फाइल अभ्यर्थी की श्रेणी के अनुसार बनती चली जाएंगी। सभी आवेदन पत्रों की फीडिंग के बाद कमांड देकर अलग-अलग श्रेणी की मेरिट तैयार होगी।
एक ही तिथि में काउंसिलिंग
प्रदेश भर के डायट में अभ्यर्थियों की काउंसिलिंग एक ही तिथि में कराई जाएगी। सूत्र बताते हैं प्रथम चरण की काउंसिलिंग 23 व 24 दिसंबर को हो सकती है, मेरिट बनाने के बाद डायट द्वारा पूरा डाटा इंटरनेट पर डाल दिया जाएगा। अभ्यर्थी नेट से अपना काउंसिलिंग पत्र हासिल कर काउंसिलिंग में शामिल हो सकेंगे। काउंसिलिंग के दौरान अभ्यर्थी के मूल शैक्षिक प्रमाणपत्र डायट द्वारा जमा कर लिए जाएंगे। प्रथम चरण के बाद रिक्त रह गई सीटों पर द्वितीय काउंसिलिंग कराई जाएगी।
News : Jagran (9.12.11)
*****************************************

UPTET Merit / Cut off

Mark range      No of candidate

126 to 140---   4807
121 to 125---   12818
116 to 120---   15222
111 to 115---    24836

This result based on survey of roll no 09001400 to 09001500 + 09000001 to 09000100 + 02000400 to02000499 + 01000500 to 01000551 + 12000700 to 12000905 + kuch randam salect roll no……………….

UP TET Mistakes/Errors are investigated by NCTE comittee

 

टीईटी गड़बड़ियों की जांच शुरू : राष्ट्रीय शिक्षक प्रशिक्षण परिषद (एनसीटीई) ने जांच के लिए पांच सदस्यों की कमेटी बना दी

( UP TET Mistakes/Errors are investigated by NCTE comittee)

राज्य स्तरीय शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (टीईटी) में बड़े पैमाने पर हुई गड़बड़ियों की जांच शुरू हो गई है। परिणाम के बाद दो हजार से अधिक गंभीर शिकायतों के मद्देनजर राष्ट्रीय शिक्षक प्रशिक्षण परिषद (एनसीटीई) ने जांच के लिए पांच सदस्यों की कमेटी बना दी है। कमेटी ने टीईटी आवेदन से लेकर चार संशोधन तक पूरी प्रक्रिया का ब्योरा माध्यमिक शिक्षा विभाग से मांगा है। सवालों, विकल्पों के साथ कमेटी अधिकारियों पर लग रहे आरोपों की भी जांच करेगी। कमेटी के सदस्यों ने संकेत दिए हैं कि यदि 20 फीसदी सवालों में खामियां पाई गईं तो परीक्षा रद्द की जा सकती है। इसके अलावा यदि 30 फीसदी परिणाम में खामियां मिलीं तो परीक्षाफल रद्द हो सकता है।
गड़बड़ियों के आरोपों को ज्यादा तवज्जो
शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा में गड़बड़ी को एनसीटीई ने गंभीरता से लिया है। उत्तर प्रदेश में इस बार टीईटी को ही प्राथमिक विद्यालयों में चयन का आधार बनाया गया है, इसलिए गड़बड़ियों के आरोपों को ज्यादा तवज्जो दी जा रही है। अधिकारियों की मानें तो सर्व शिक्षा अभियान के कुछ अफसरों ने भी इस मामले में यूपी बोर्ड की भूमिका को लेकर संदेह जताया है और पूरी परीक्षा प्रक्रिया की जांच के लिए एनसीटीई तथा मानव संसाधन विकास मंत्रालय को लिखा था। एनसीटीई ने जांच के लिए जो कमेटी बनाई उसमें सर्व शिक्षा अभियान के दो अधिकारियों को भी शामिल किया है।
अनियमितताओं के साथ पूरे परिणाम पर सवाल
बताया गया कि एनसीटीई को जो शिकायतें भेजी गईं उनमें ज्यादातर शिक्षा निदेशालय से जुड़े बाबुओं और बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग के अधिकारियों ने करवाई। उन्होंने परीक्षा प्रक्रिया के दौरान बरती गई अनियमितताओं के साथ पूरे परिणाम पर सवाल उठाया है। आरोप है कि जिस तरह की गड़बड़ियां परिणाम में की गई हैं, वह लापरवाही का बड़ा उदाहरण है। बेसिक शिक्षा विभाग के अधिकारियों का आरोप है कि यूपी बोर्ड ने विशेषज्ञों का जो पैनल बनाया, उसे कहीं से भी परीक्षा के अनुकूल नहीं ठहराया जा सकता। जांच कमेटी में शामिल अधिकारी विमलकांत रौतेला रविवार को इलाहाबाद में थे। उन्होंने यहां कई अधिकारियों-कर्मचारियों से पूछताछ की। अधिकारी ने स्वीकार किया कि परिणाम में गड़बड़ियों की जांच के साथ परीक्षा में यूपी बोर्ड अधिकारियों की भूमिका की भी जांच को कहा गया है।

न्यूज़ साभार : Amar Ujala (5.12.11)

----------------------------------------------------

Important Points :

UPTET matter is investigated by 5 member NCTE comittee

If 20% questions are wrong then TET Exam may be cancelled OR

If 30% result is WRONG then TET exam may be cancelled.

Basic Shiksha Vibhag UP raises objection : UP Board Expert panel is inappropriate.

Hirerchical/Descending order, for selecting choice in UPTET 2011

Hirerchical/Descending order, for selecting choice in UPTET 2011.

सीतापुर 6000
लखीमपुर 6000
गोण्डा 4000
बहराइच 3600
कुशीनगर 3600
हरदोई 3000
शाहजहॉपुर 2800
महराजगंज 2500
आजमगढ़ 2500
गाजीपुर 2400
सिद्धार्थ नगर 2000
बलरामपुर 1700
मीरजापुर 1650
बदायूं 1600
इलाहाबाद 1500
जौनपुर 1500
सुल्तानपुर 1400
बरेली 1400
सोनभद्र 1250
पीलीभीत 1200
चन्दौली 1200
कौशाम्बी 1000
श्रावस्ती 900
मुरादाबाद 900
संत कबीर नगर 800
ललितपुर 800
बॉदा 800
महोबा 800
भीमनगर 800
रामपुर 800
संतरविदासनगर 800
रायबरेली 800
सहारनपुर 800
देवरिया 800
एटा 700
काशीरामनगर 700
उन्नाव 700
अम्बेडकरनगर 500
प्रतापगढ़ 500
इटावा 500
गोरखपुर 500
बस्ती 400
जालौन 400
बाराबंकी 400
फर्रुखाबाद 400
कन्नौज 400
हमीरपुर 300
फैजाबाद 300
हाथरस 300
चित्रकूट धाम 250
बिजनौर 200
ज्योतिबाफुलेनगर 200
मऊ 200
मुजफरनगर 200
प्रबुद्धनगर 200
बुलन्दशहर 195
बागपत 100
आगरा 100
मैनपुरी 100
अलीगढ़ 100
वाराणसी 100
झॉसी 50
कानपुरदेहात 50
फिरोजाबाद 48
गौतमबुद्धनगर 12
गाजियाबाद 12
पंचशीलनगर 12
मथुरा 12
छत्रपति साहू जी महराज 12
फतेहपुर 12
कानपुरनगर 12
औरैया 12
लखनऊ 12
बलिया 12
मेरठ 12
योग 72825

Note : AGAR AAPKE MARKS 110 se kam hon to aap ko SITAPUR (6000 seats) , LAKHIMPUR (6000 seats) , GONDA (4000 seats ) jaise zilon me aavedan karna chahiye ..........agar aapke marks 110 se 120 tak bhi hon to aap risk le sakte hain apne manpasand zilon me ... jahan 500 se 1000 seats hain............ Best of luck….

Statistical Data of UPTET Exam 2011

Statistical Data of UPTET Exam

As per sample data of 500 records tested (from 03006001 to 03006500)  and found -
10 candidates secure more than 120 marks -
**************************
Approx 600000 ( as per news 594053) candidates appeared in exam.

Considering this figure -
1. 3 Feamle candidate ( appears as per name) passed with 120+ marks from 500 candidates. 600000/500* 3= 3600 approx. female candidates cleared with 120+ marks.
2. Approx. 12000 candidates passes with 120+ marks.
****************************
38 candidates got marks from 111 to 120

****************************************
It means 600000/500* 38 = 45600 (approx.) candidates got marks 111 to 120

**********************************
66 Candidates got 101 to 110 Marks -

***********************************************

It means 600000/500* 66 = 79200 (approx.) candidates got marks 101 to 110
************************************************
FOR GENERAL CATEGORY -
Therefore as per analysis of statistical data GENERAL Category, who have 36423 seats (50% of 72845 seats),
Cut-off can go 111 to 120 marks at bottom level .
Merit can be very high where no. of vacancies are less e.g. Lucknow, Gautam Buddh Nagar, Gaziabad, Merrut etc.
Where 12 vacancies available, cut-off chances apporx. to 130.
Where 100 vacancies available, cut-off chances are above 120
If any of you have better analysis/ research/news then drop in comment box.
Note : These are statistical data (Errors may be possible in statistical data analysis also & it differ from ACTUAL / Real Data, In statistical data also ERROR may possible due to sample, sample size etc. And therefore apply your intelligence to submit your application. Information published here is informatory in nature and it is observatory aspect of data.

UPTET 2011 Result & News

 

टीईटी में टॉपर्स को मिले 93.3 प्रतिशत अंक

इलाहाबाद, 25 नवंबर (जाका) : माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद द्वारा 13 नवंबर को आयोजित शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (टीईटी) का परिणाम शुक्रवार रात 9.30 बजे घोषित कर दिया गया। प्राथमिक स्तर के शिक्षकों के लिए हुई परीक्षा में 93.3 प्रतिशत (140/150) अंक पाकर संयुक्त रूप से कानपुर के उमेश गुप्ता, वाराणसी की मीनू राना व श्रवण कुमार ने टॉप किया है। इसी तरह से उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर में 86 प्रतिशत (129/150) अंक पाकर लखनऊ की शिल्पी अग्रवाल, मेरठ के दीपक तोमर व गोरखपुर की वंदना मिश्रा ने टॉप किया है। प्राथमिक स्तर का परीक्षा परिणाम 45.59 प्रतिशत, जबकि उच्च प्राथमिक का 40.37 प्रतिशत रहा है। यूपीटीईटी में न्यूनतम 60 प्रतिशत अंक हासिल करने वाले अभ्यर्थी सफल रहे हैं। अभ्यर्थी परीक्षा परिणाम यूपीटीईटी2011.कॉम पर देख सकते हैं। प्राथमिक स्तर में कुल 5,94,053 अभ्यर्थी परीक्षा में शरीक हुए थे, जिसमें से 2,70,806 अभ्यर्थी सफल घोषित किए गए हैं।

अमर उजाला ब्यूरो

लखनऊ। माध्यमिक शिक्षा परिषद ने शुक्रवार को शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (टीईटी) का रिजल्ट जारी कर दिया। परीक्षा की मेरिट उम्मीदों से काफी अधिक रही। केंद्रीय शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (सीटीईटी) में 60 फीसदी अंक के लिए तरस गए अभ्यर्थियों ने यूपीटीईटी में ऊंची छलांग लगाई और मेरिट 140 अंक तक जा पहुंची। टीईटी की प्राथमिक स्तरीय परीक्षा में 45.59 फीसदी और उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर की परीक्षा में 40.37 फीसदी अभ्यर्थी सफल हुए। यानी इतने अभ्यर्थियों को 60 फीसदी अंक मिले।

प्राथमिक स्तर पर कानपुर के उमेश गुप्ता, वाराणसी की मीनू राणा और श्रवण कुमार जायसवाल ने सर्वाधिक 140 अंक हासिल कर टॉप किया। उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर लखनऊ की शिल्पी अग्रवाल, मेरठ के दीपक तोमर और गोरखपुर की वंदना मिश्रा टॅपर रही। तीनों ने 150 में 129 अंक हासिल किए। माध्यमिक शिक्षा निदेशक संजय मोहन ने बताया कि आधी रात तक परीक्षा के नतीजे वेबसाइट पर देखे जा सकते हैं।

टीईटी 13 नवंबर को प्रदेश के 18 मंडल मुख्यालयों पर आयोजित हुई थी। प्राथमिक और उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर की परीक्षाएं 150-150 अंक की थीं। इन्हें उत्तीर्ण करने के लिए सामान्य वर्ग के अभ्यर्थियों को 60 फीसदी तथा अनुसूचित एवं पिछड़ा वर्ग 55 फीसदी अंक प्राप्त करने थे। प्राथमिक स्तर की परीक्षा में कुल 594053 अभ्यर्थी शामिल हुए थे, इनमें से 270806 उत्तीर्ण हुए। इसी तरह उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर की परीक्षा में कुल 519665 अभ्यर्थी शामिल हुए जिसमें 209789 को सफलता मिली।

मंडल में 130 तक पहुंची मेरिट

इलाहाबाद। टीईटी में भले ही इलाहाबाद के अभ्यर्थी टॉप नहीं कर सके लेकिन अच्छे अंक पाने वालों की संख्या काफी अधिक है। स्थानीय स्तर पर प्राथमिक परीक्षा में 52 फीसदी और जूनियर स्तर पर 43 फीसदी सफल हुए।

विस्तृत पेज : 10 पर

72 हजार शिक्षकों की भर्ती 31 दिसंबर तक

लखनऊ। प्रदेश के प्राथमिक विद्यालयों में 72,825 शिक्षकों की भरती 31 दिसंबर तक हो जाएगी। इसके लिए एक-दो दिन में विज्ञापन जारी कर दिया जाएगा। फार्म जमा करने की अंतिम तिथि 15 दिसंबर रखी गई है। फिलहाल तैयार प्रारूप में इसके लिए आयु सीमा 40 साल रखी गई है। विस्तृत खबर पेज : 10 पर

Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court Clerical Cadre Service Exam, 2011 : Solved Paper

 
Uttarakhand High Court Subordinate Civil Court
Clerical Cadre Service Exam., 2011
(Held on 28-8-2011)

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Govind National Park
(b) Sonanadi Wild Life Sanctuary
(c) Tiger fall
(d) Gorakhnath Ki Dhuni
List-II
1. Dehradun
2. Champawat
3. Pauri Garhwal
4. Uttarkashi
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

2. Which National Highway does not pass through Distt. Udham Singh Nagar ?
(A) NH-125
(B) NH-74
(C) NH-87
(D) NH-123
Ans : (B)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Kotgarhi Devi
(b) Pataal Rudreshwar
(c) Raichand Devta
(d) Dunagiri
List-II
1. Pithoragarh
2. Champawat
3. Bageshwar
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

4. ‘Indian Institute of Management’ IIM in Uttarakhand is situated—
(A) Srinagar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Kashipur (U.S. Nagar)
Ans : (B)

5. Match List-I and II—
List-I (Hill)
(a) Nanda Devi
(b) Panchachuli
(c) Bhagirathi
(d) Trishul
List-II (Place)
1. Uttarkashi
2. Chamoli
3. Pithoragarh
4. Almora
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (A)

6. Where is Industrial Taxological Research Centre situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Roorkee
(C) Nainital
(D) Ranikhet
Ans : (A)

7. An electric bulb has a filament made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Lead
(D) Tungsten
Ans : (D)

8. The Nainital Lake was discovered by (in 1841)—
(A) Shankaracharya
(B) Pradhumna Shah
(C) P. Bairan
(D) Frank Smith
Ans : (A)

9. Stainless steel contains—
(A) Chromium, Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(B) Nickel, Iron and Carbon
(C) Chromium, Iron and Carbon
(D) Iron and Carbon only
Ans : (A)

10. Where is the BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) U. S. Nagar
(D) Pauri
Ans : (B)

11. Where is National Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mussoorie
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (C)

12. Mussoorie wild life sanctuary is established in—
(A) 1983
(B) 1993
(C) 1971
(D) 2001
Ans : (B)

13. Kedarnath wild life sanctuary is situated at—
(A) Almora
(B) Nainital
(C) Uttarkashi
(D) Chamoli
Ans : (D)

14. Where is Udaishankar Dance Academy situated ?
(A) Almora
(B) Dehradun
(C) Srinagar
(D) Haridwar
Ans : (A)

15. Most of the weather phenomenon takes place in the—
(A) Photosphere
(B) Exosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (D)

16. Chemically, dry ice is—
(A) Solid Carbondioxide
(B) Solid Sulphurdioxide
(C) Ice formed from distilled water
(D) Ice kept at Sub-zero temperature
Ans : (A)

17. Who is the first Chairman of Public Service Commission of Uttarakhand ?
(A) N.P. Nawani
(B) K. Arya
(C) Ajay Vikram Singh
(D) Ashok Kant Saran
Ans : (A)

18. Where is the Tiffin top situated ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Nainital
(C) Mumbai
(D) Roorkee
Ans : (B)

19. The planet nearest to sun is—
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Mercury
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

20. Excessive Consumption of alcoholic drinks causes damage to—
(A) Lungs
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
Ans : (B)

21. How many colour are there in white light ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

22. Corbett National Park aims mainly on protection of which animal ?
(A) Elephant
(B) Rhinoceros
(C) Panther
(D) Tiger
Ans : (D)

23. How many districts touch the international boundary in Uttarakhand ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
Ans : (C)

24. Which is the oldest Veda ?
(A) Yajurveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Samveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)

25. Average blood-pressure of human is—
(A) 60/100
(B) 20/80
(C) 60/140
(D) 120/80
Ans : (D)

26. The number of chromosomes in human beings is—
(A) 36
(B) 46
(C) 56
(D) 26
Ans : (B)

27. The branch of Science that deals with tumors is known as—
(A) Serology
(B) Oncology
(C) Chromology
(D) Urology
Ans : (B)

28. What line connects the point on a map that receive equal amount of rainfall ?
(A) Isobar
(B) Isohel
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isohyet
Ans : (D)

29. Which Indian born physicist invented the ‘Optical Fibre’ ?
(A) C. V. Raman
(B) Satyendra Nath Bose
(C) Homi J. Bhabha
(D) Narinder Singh Kapany
Ans : (D)

30. ‘Ace’, ‘Double fault’, ‘Smash’, ‘Second Service’ and‘Gamepoint’ terms are related with which sport ?
(A) Tennis
(B) Squash
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton
Ans : (A)

31. Who authored ancient Sanskrit plays ‘Malti Madhava’, ‘Mahavir-Charita’ and Uttar Ramcharita ?
(A) Kalidas
(B) Bhavabhuti
(C) Banabhatta
(D) Vishakhadatta
Ans : (B)

32. Which Indian lady writer authored Onasis award winning play ‘Harvest’, highlighting the controversial issue of Organ trading in poverty stricken areas ?
(A) Kiran Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Manjula Padmanabhan
(D) Arundhati Roy
Ans : (C)

33. Who was the first person to calculate the height of the Mount Everest ?
(A) Andrew Waugh
(B) George Everest
(C) Nain Singh Rawat
(D) Radhanath Sikdar
Ans : (D)

34. The transfer of Capital of British Indian from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
Ans : (B)

35. The scheme which identify creative children within the age group of 5 to 16 years in creative art creative performance, creative scientific innovations and creative writing ?
(A) Bal Shree Scheme
(B) Bal Bodh
(C) Bal Sadan
(D) Bal Shiksha
Ans : (A)

36. The right to Education provides free and compulsory education of all chidren in the age-group of 6 to 14 years. This right is inserted to which article of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-21
(B) Article-24
(C) Article-19
(D) Article-14
Ans : (A)

37. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is the Research and developing wing of which Ministry under Government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Home affairs
(B) Ministry of defence
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Ministry of Environment
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?
(A) Central Potato Research Institute — Shimla
(B) Archaelogical Survey of India — Kolkata
(C) Indian Institute of Petroleum — Dehradun
(D) National Dairy Research Institute — Panipat
Ans : (D)

39. Laprosy is caused by—
(A) Pasteurella pestis
(B) Mycobacterium
(C) Clostridium
(D) Vibrio
Ans : (A)

40. Bacteria were first discovered by—
(A) Robert Koch
(B) L. Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) A. Von Leuwenhoek
Ans : (D)

41. Which is known as evening star ?
(A) Cirrus
(B) Saturn
(C) Uranus
(D) Venus
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Horse Latitude’ related to—
(A) Thermal Belt
(B) Sea Route
(C) Pressure Belt
(D) Eco Belt
Ans : (B)

43. Which one of the following layers have maximum density ?
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (B)

44. The name of the founder of the Red Cross is—
(A) Henry Dunant
(B) Baden Powell
(C) Frederick Passey
(D) U-Thant
Ans : (B)

45. The city of Rome is situated on the bank of river—
(A) Vistula
(B) Avon
(C) Rhine
(D) Tiber
Ans : (D)

46. Vinegar is produced from—
(A) Ethanoic Acid
(B) Valeric Acid
(C) Methanoic Acid
(D) Butanoic Acid
Ans : (C)

47. The famous temple of ‘Neelkhanth Mahadev’ is situated in which district ?
(A) Dehradun
(B) Haridwar
(C) Pauri Garhwal
(D) Rudraprayag
Ans : (B)

48. Who is known as ‘Gandhi of Uttarakhand’ ?
(A) Late Indramani Badoni
(B) Sridev Suman
(C) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(D) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Ans : (A)

49. Who is named as ‘Jhansi Ki Rani’ in the history of Garhwal ?
(A) Teelu Rauteli
(B) Maharani Gularia
(C) Jiarani
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. Who is the first Indian whose name is entered in ‘Guinese Book of World Records’ on making world record in shorthand ?
(A) Shri Kishan Chandra Joshi
(B) Dr. Gopal Das Bisht
(C) Shri Badri Dutt Pandey
(D) Dr. Harshavanti Bisht
Ans : (B)

51. When was the Nehru Institute of Mountaineering, Uttarkashi established ?
(A) 14 November, 1951
(B) 14 November, 1965
(C) 9 November, 2000
(D) 9 November, 1991
Ans : (B)

52. The confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi river is—
(A) Devprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Nandprayag
(D) Karnaprayag
Ans : (A)

53. L.P.G. mainly contains—
(A) Methane
(B) Methane and Ethane
(C) Hydrogen, Methane and Ethane
(D) Butane and Propane
Ans : (D)

54. ‘Fire Temple’ is the worship place of which religion ?
(A) Christianity
(B) Yahudi
(C) Muslim
(D) Parsi
Ans : (B)

55. Where in 1943, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose announced the temporary Government for the freedom of India ?
(A) Colombo
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Rangoon
Ans : (C)

56. Which one is not one of the four Vedas ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Atharvaveda
(D) Ayurveda
Ans : (D)

57. Name of Shivaji’s mother—
(A) Ahilya Bai
(B) Jodhabai
(C) Jeeja Bai
(D) Panna Bai
Ans : (C)

58. Which city is called ‘City of Lakes’ ?
(A) Udaipur
(B) Jabalpur
(C) Jammu
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (A)

59. Which out of the following rivers terminates in the Arabian Sea ?
(A) Krishna
(B) Indus
(C) Yamuna
(D) Gomti
Ans : (B)

60. Who wrote ‘Geetanjali’ ?
(A) Sharat Chandra
(B) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Bankim Chandra Chaterjee
Ans : (C)

61. ‘Uber Cup’ is related to which game ?
(A) Baseball
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Basket Ball
Ans : (B)

62. Veer Chandra Singh Garhwali is related to—
(A) Kakori-Case
(B) Meerut-Armed Revolt
(C) Chauri-Chaura Case
(D) Peshwar Military Revolt
Ans : (D)

63. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?
(A) ADR
(B) GDR
(C) SDR
(D) Both ADR and SDR
Ans : (C)

64. In India, the interest rate on saving accounts in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by—
(A) Union Ministry of Finance
(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

65. What does S and P 500 relate to ?
(A) Super Computer
(B) A new technique in e-business
(C) A new technique in bridge building
(D) A index of stock of large companies
Ans : (D)

66. Gilt-edged market means—
(A) Bullion market
(B) Market of Government Securities
(C) Markets of Guns
(D) Market of Pure metals
Ans : (B)

67. Which one of the following ports of India handles the highest tonnage of import cargo ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Kandla
(C) Mumbai
(D) Visakhapatnam
Ans : (C)

68. ‘Chapchar Kut’ festival is celebrated in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Mizoram
(D) Sikkim
Ans : (C)

69. First Indian actress to be awarded ‘Padamshri’—
(A) Smita Patil
(B) Nargis Dutt
(C) Meena Kumari
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (B)

70. ‘Charak Sanhita’ is related to which of the following ?
(A) Art
(B) Law
(C) Adminstration of State
(D) Medicine
Ans : (D)

71. During which five year plan was the Emergency clamped, new election took place and Janta Party was elected ?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth
Ans : (C)

72. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within—
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
Ans : (C)

73. Who was the speaker of the first Lok Sabha ?
(A) Hukum Singh
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) U.N. Dhebar
Ans : (B)

74. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Either House of Parliament
(C) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(D) Rajya Sabha Alone
Ans : (D)

75. The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the—
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
(D) Contingency Fund of the State
Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the constitution ?
(A) Right to freedom of religion
(B) Right to property
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)

77. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the scheduled tribes in Lok Sabha is—
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

78. Which one among the following has the highest energy ?
(A) Blue light
(B) Green light
(C) Red light
(D) Yellow light
Ans : (A)

79. The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an—
(A) Amphibian
(B) Bony fish
(C) Shark
(D) Mammal
Ans : (D)

80. In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?
(A) Leaf
(B) Petal
(C) Sepal
(D) Stigma
Ans : (D)

81. The full name of EONR is—
(A) East Organisation for North Region
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) English Organisation for Nuclear Research
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

82. In the context of alternative sources of energy, Ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from—
(A) Potato
(B) Rice
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Ans : (C)

83. In the following matching which one of them does not match ?
(A) Baki Etihas—Badal Sarkar
(B) Sita Swayamber—Vishnu Das Bhave
(C) Yayati—Girish Karnad
(D) Gidha—Jabar Patel
Ans : (D)

84. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) Extent of executive power of State
(D) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans : (B)

85. Reserve Bank of India was Established in—
(A) 1929
(B) 1942
(C) 1935
(D) 1947
Ans : (C)

86. Hereditary information in animals and plants is stored in—
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Ribosomes
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

87. Point out the wrong match—
(A) Plague — Rat
(B) Rabies — Dog
(C) Polio — Monkey
(D) Tapeworm — Pig
Ans : (C)

88. Diabetes is caused due to lack of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Insulin
(C) Calcium
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)

89. The satellite launching center in India is located at—
(A) Thumba
(B) Bangalore
(C) Sri Harikota
(D) Trombay
Ans : (C)

90. The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in—
(A) Nainital
(B) Dehradun
(C) Haridwar
(D) Delhi
Ans : (B)

91. Central Building Reserach Institute is located at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Varanasi
(C) Roorkee
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

92. Optical fiber are used in—
(A) CAT Scans
(B) X-ray photos
(C) Ultrasonic Scans
(D) Endoscopy
Ans : (A)

93. The concept of carbon credit is originated from which one of the following ?
(A) Earth Summit, Rio-de Janerio
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(C) Montreal Protocol
(D) G-8, Summit Helligendamm
Ans : (B)

94. Who is known as ‘Missile Man of India’ ?
(A) Arjun Singh
(B) Dr. C. V. Raman
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) H.J. Bhabha
Ans : (C)

95. The largest gland of body is—
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Adrenal
Ans : (A)

96. Cryogenic Engine is used in—
(A) Sub-marine
(B) Glider
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)

97. On which of the following rivers Hirakund Dam is built ?
(A) Godawari
(B) Ganga
(C) Narmada
(D) Mahanadi
Ans : (D)

98. Kaziranga Sanctuary is for the protection of—
(A) Birds
(B) Tiger
(C) Rhinoceros
(D) Elephant
Ans : (C)

99. Pt. Ravishankar is an exponent of—
(A) Sitar
(B) Sarod
(C) Tabla
(D) Flute
Ans : (A)

100. The Eiffel Tower is situated at—
(A) London
(B) Berlin
(C) Paris
(D) Washington
Ans : (C)

101. The second largest delta is on the river of—
(A) Narmada
(B) Krishna
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godawari
Ans : (B)

102. Volume of blood in normal body is—
(A) 3-4 litre
(B) 10-12 litre
(C) 8-10 litre
(D) 5-6 litre
Ans : (D)

103. ‘Lord Buddha’ was born at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Lumbini
(C) Kapilvastu
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (B)

104. Who is known as ‘Father of Computer’ ?
(A) Blaze Pascal
(B) Charles Bavage
(C) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans : (B)

105. Who is known as ‘Lady with the lamp’ ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Jone of Arc
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Florence Nightingale
Ans : (D)

106. ‘Garba Dance’ is associated with which state?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

107. ‘Alfred Noble’ is known for—
(A) Microphone
(B) Type-writer
(C) Dynamite
(D) Gramophone
Ans : (C)

108. ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated on which date ?
(A) 5th June
(B) 2nd October
(C) 10th November
(D) 19th November
Ans : (A)

109. Jim Corebett National Park was established in the year—
(A) 1936
(B) 1947
(C) 1982
(D) 1957
Ans : (A)

110. ‘Project Tiger’ was started in the year—
(A) 1972
(B) 1973
(C) 1982
(D) 1990
Ans : (B)

111. Normal blood sugar level in human is—
(A) 80-100 mg/100 ml of blood
(B) 50-80 mg/100 ml of blood
(C) 110-170 mg/100 ml of blood
(D) 115-140 mg/100 ml of blood
Ans : (A)

112. The United Nations Organisation came into existence in—
(A) 1946
(B) 1945
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
Ans : (B)

113. The headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in—
(A) Geneva
(B) The Hague
(C) New York
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)

114. ‘Dar-es-Salaam’ is capital of—
(A) Kenya
(B) Tanzania
(C) Japan
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)

115. ‘Kyat’ is the currency of—
(A) Myanmar
(B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Japan
(D) Libya
Ans : (A)

116. Who is called the ‘Grand Old Man of India’?
(A) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Dadabhai Nauroji
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (C)

117. Mark the incorrect pair—
(A) Frontier Gandhi—Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Deshbandhu—Chitranjan Dass
(C) Deenbandhu—C.F. Andrews
(D) Lok Nayak—Jai Prakash
Ans : (A)

118. Article-370 of the Indian Constitution is related to—
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Punjab
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

119. The minimum age required for an Indian citizen to become a member of the Lok Sabha is—
(A) 21 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)

120. What is the principle by which is cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works ?
(A) Conduction only
(B) Convection only
(C) Radiation only
(D) Both conduction and radiation
Ans : (D)

121. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless technology ?
(A) EDGE
(B) DSI
(C) LTE
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

122. Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?
(A) Radio wave
(B) Microwave
(C) IR wave
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

123. Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
(A) Phosphorous Trichloride
(B) Mercuric Oxide
(C) Graphite
(D) Nitroglycerine
Ans : (D)

124. Consider the following—
1. Camphor
2. Chicory
3. Vanilla
Which of the above is/are plant product(s)?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

125. In the context of Indian wildlife, the flying fox is a—
(A) Bat
(B) Kite
(C) Stork
(D) Vulture
Ans : (A)

126. The main chemical substance present in the bones and teeth of animal is—
(A) Sodium Chloride
(B) Sugar
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Sulphate
Ans : (C)

127. What is the colour of ‘Black Box’ of an aeroplane ?
(A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Violet
(D) Orange
Ans : (D)

128. ‘Foot and Mouth Disease’ is found in—
(A) Cattles and sheep
(B) Cattles and pigs
(C) Sheep and goats
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

129. In Computer terminology CD means—
(A) Compact disc
(B) Compressed disc
(C) Computerised data
(D) Compressed data
Ans : (A)

130. ‘Alzeheimer Disease’ effects which organ of the body ?
(A) Ear
(B) Brain
(C) Eye
(D) Abdomen
Ans : (B)

131. Main Constituent of honey is—
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Maltose
(D) Fructose
Ans : (D)

132. Which of the following is the richest source of Vitamin C ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Guava
(C) Mango
(D) Orange
Ans : (B)

133. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven. The potato heat up the paper plate does not. This is because—
(A) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(B) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contains water
(C) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

134. ‘Swaraj is my Birth-Right’ who gave this slogan ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (B)

135. In India ‘Silicon Valley’ is situated in—
(A) Madras (Chennai)
(B) Mumbai
(C) Bangalore (Bengaluru)
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

136. ‘Chilli Saltpetre’ is associated with—
(A) Sodium Nitrate
(B) Cupric Chloride
(C) Potassium Nitrate
(D) Sodium Chloride
Ans : (A)

137. The drug ‘Quinine’ is obtained from which plant ?
(A) Cannabis Plant
(B) Cinchona Plant
(C) Tulsi Plant
(D) Sunflower plant
Ans : (B)

138. Who invented ‘Television’ ?
(A) Edison
(B) Galelio
(C) Baired
(D) Franklin
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the following instrument is used to measure intensity of sun-rays ?
(A) Astrometer
(B) Crescograph
(C) Acteometer
(D) Barometer
Ans : (A)

140. Which of the following is the highest mountain peak of Uttarakhand ?
(A) Nandadevi
(B) Chaukhambha
(C) Kamet
(D) Mount Everest
Ans : (A)

UPTET 2011 Answer Key

UPTET 2011 Answer Key, UPTET I/II - 2011 complete Solution with answer, www.uptet2011.com
UPTET Answer Key 2011 have published and It's now available online. Candidates who have appeared in UPTET 2011 examination which was held on 13th November 2011 should visit below URL for getting Answer Key/ Solution of Uttar Pradesh Teachers Eligibility Test (UPTET) 2011. We are always providing direct easy link for getting UPTET 2012 answer key and UPTET 2011 Solution with answer. UPTET I answer key and UPTET II 2011 answer key available. If your are looking for UPTET 2011 answer key/ uptet 2011 solution visit directly below website link for getting complete solution UPTET 2011 answer key:

UPTET 2011 Answer Key

UPTET 2011 answer key, uptet solution, uptet question paper solve, complete solution answer key of UPTET 2011.

The major highlights of the Census 2011

The major highlights of the Census 2011 (Provisional figures) are as under:

• *The population of India has increased by more than 181 million during the decade 2001-2011.
• *Percentage growth in 2001-2011 is 17.64; males 17.19 and females 18.12.
• 2001-2011 is the first decade (with the exception of 1911-1921) which has actually added lesser population compared to the previous decade.
• *Uttar Pradesh (199.5 million) is the most populous State in the country followed by Maharashtra with 112 million.
• *The percentage decadal growth rates of the six most populous States have declined during 2001-2011 compared to 1991-2001:
• -Uttar Pradesh (25.85% to 20.09%)
• -Maharashtra (22.73% to 15.99%)
• -Bihar (28.62% to 25.07%)
• -West Bengal (17.77 % to 13.93%)
• -Andhra Pradesh (14.59% to 11.10%)
• -Madhya Pradesh (24.26% to 20.30%)
• *During 2001-2011, as many as 25 States/UTs with a share of about 85% of the country's population registered an annual growth rate of less than 2% as compared to, 15 States/UTs with a share of about 42% during the period 1991-2001.
• *15 States/UTs have grown by less than 1.5 per cent per annum during 2001-2011, while the number of such States/UTs was only 4 during the previous decade.
• *The total number of children in the age-group 0-6 is 158.8 million (-5 million since 2001)
• *Twenty States and Union Territories now have over one million children in the age group 0-6 years. On the other extreme, there are five States and Union Territories in the country that are yet to reach the one hundred thousand mark.
• *Uttar Pradesh (29.7 million), Bihar (18.6 million), Maharashtra (12.8 million), Madhya Pradesh (10.5 million) and Rajasthan (10.5 million) constitute 52% children in the age group of 0-6 years.
• *Population (0-6 years) 2001-2011 registered minus (-)3.08 percent growth with minus (-)2.42 for males and -3.80 for females.
• *The proportion of Child Population in the age group of 0-6 years to total population is 13.1 percent while the corresponding figure in 2001 was 15.9 percent. The decline has been to the extent of 2.8 points.
• *Overall sex ratio at the national level has increased by 7 points to reach 940 at Census 2011 as against 933 in Census 2001. This is the highest sex ratio recorded since Census 1971 and a shade lower than 1961. Increase in sex ratio is observed in 29 States/UTs.
• *Three major States (J&K, Bihar & Gujarat) have shown decline in sex ratio as compared to Census 2001.
• *Kerala with 1084 has the highest sex ratio followed by Puducherry with 1038, Daman & Diu has the lowest sex ratio of 618.
  

ENG vs Ind Live Score (s): India vs England scorecard, 5th ODI | England in India 2011 | ENG vs Ind | Cricket Score (s) - Sify

ENG vs Ind Live Score (s): India vs England scorecard, 5th ODI England in India 2011 ENG vs Ind Cricket Score (s) - Sify

General Knowledge & Current Affairs : Solved Paper

 L.I.C. Apprentice Development Officers Recruitment Exam., 2010
(Held on 13-6-2010)
General Knowledge & Current Affairs : Solved Paper

1. Which of the following types of companies / organizations issue ‘ULIP’ ? (The ULIPs were recently in news)
(A) Insurance companies
(B) Banks
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
2. Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities ?
(A) NFCG
(B) IRDA
(C) CII
(D) FICCI
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
3. Which amongst the following is NOT an insurance company functioning in India ?
(A) ICICI Prudential
(B) ING Vysya
(C) ICICI Lombard
(D) New India Assurance Company
(E) National Securities Depository Ltd.
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is the only Public Sector Company in the field of life insurance?
(A) General Insurance Company
(B) New India Assurance Company
(C) Oriental Insurance Company
(D) Sahara Life Insurance
(E) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Ans : (E)
5. As per the news in various financial newspapers, Larson & Toubro (L & T) is planning to enter the insurance business in India. Otherwise, what is the major business of L & T, which it is known for ?
(A) Newspaper Publications
(B) Media Entertainment
(C) Car & Automobile Production
(D) Textiles
(E) Heavy Engineering & Construction
Ans : (E)
6. “A contract that pledges payment on an agreed upon amount to the person (or his/her nominee) on the happening of an event covered against” is technically known as—
(A) Death coverage
(B) Life Insurance
(C) Savings for future
(D) Provident Fund
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. As per the news published in various news papers, Life Insurance policies may become paperless in the near future. This means—
(A) LIC will not insure any person hereafter as it has already reached its peak
(B) LIC will not ask for any documents from a person who wishes to purchase an insurance policy
(C) All policy related documents and policy certificates will henceforth be available in electronic form and not in their present physical form
(D) LIC henceforth will not entertain any claim or complaint in written form or on paper. Things should be in electronic mode only
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. In Insurance policies, we always find a date which is “Date of Maturity”. What does it mean ?
(A) This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured
(B) This is the date on which the policy holder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise the company will not make any payment to him/her
(C) This is the date on which the contract between the person and insurance company will come to an end
(D) The date on which the insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the “Payment due date”
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. As we know, the Govt. is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance ?
(A) Insurance for life
(B) Investment in Mutual Funds
(C) Self Help Groups
(D) Letter of Credit
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
10. Which of the following insurance plans is NOT launched by the LIC ?
(A) Jeevan Chhaya
(B) Life Mahalife Gold Plan
(C) Child Career Plan
(D) Child Future Plan
(E) Jeevan Saral
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget for 2010-11 ?
1. Rs. 3000 crores allotted for agriculture sector.
2. Fertilizer Subsidy to be reduced.
3. Hope to implement Direct Tax code from April 2011.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The White Tiger” ?
(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) V.S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) Aravind Adiga
Ans : (E)
13. Who amongst the following is the Man Booker Prize winner of 2009 for his/her life-time achievement ?
(A) Alice Munro
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Shobha De
(D) Graham Swift
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is the best description of what insurance is ?
(Many times companies also communicate the same to the person interested in getting an
insurance policy)—
(A) Insurance = Collective bearing of risk
(B) Insurance = Paying for other’s mistake
(C) Insurance = Taking from ‘A’ to pay ‘B’
(D) Insurance = Paying for something which will never happen
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
15. Who amongst the following won OSCAR Award for his/her contribution in a film in 2009 and also two Grammy Awards in 2010—
for his/her achievements in the field ?
(A) Aamir Khan
(B) Rituparno Ghosh
(C) Deepa Mehta
(D) Mani Ratnam
(E) A. R. Rahman
Ans : (E)
16. As per the announcements made in the Union Budget for 2010-11,
public sector banks will get around Rs. 16,500 crores from the Govt. of India. For what purpose are banks getting this amount ?
(A) To strengthen their capital base
(B) To provide retirement benefits to their employees
(C) To give the public sector banks an image make over
(D) All A, B & C given above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. Who amongst the following Indian Players was one of the members of the team which won the Australian Open Lawn Tennis Tournament -2010 ?
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mahesh Bhupati
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Sunitha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
18. Which of the following organizations/agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Policy which is followed by all banks in India?
(A) Indian Bank’s Association
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities & Exchange Board of India
(D) Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Penalty Stroke
(B) Knock out
(C) Bully
(D) Checkmate
(E) Silly point
Ans : (E)
20. Which of the following countries was the host of the SAARC Summit 2010 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Who amongst the following is not a winner of the “Padmashri Award” given away in 2010 ?
(A) Ulhas Kashalkar
(B) Saif Ali Khan
(C) Rekha
(D) Lalit Modi
(E) Raghunath Panigrahi
Ans : (D)
22. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the world of finance, banking and insurance ?
(A) Devaluation
(B) Amnesty
(C) Hard Currency
(D) Preference share
(E) Sinking fund
Ans : (B)
23. Who amongst the following is NOT amongst the winners of the 56th National Film Awards?
(A) Shreya Ghosal
(B) Priyanka Chopra
(C) Hariharan
(D) Shilpa Shetty
(E) Arjun Rampal
Ans : (D)
24. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2009 was given to the—
(A) President of Nepal
(B) Prime Minister of Nepal
(C) President of Afghanistan
(D) Prime Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Gnanpith Award
(B) Bharat Ratna
(C) Arjuna Award
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

CTET 2011 Paper - I Solved Question Paper

CTET 2011 Paper - I Solved Question Paper

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducted CTET Examination 2011 on 26 June 2011.
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of one and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.
4. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:
Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Part II: Mathematics (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
Part III: Environmental Studies (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
Part IV: Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. 91 to Q. 120)
Part V: Language II-(English/Hindi) (Q.121toQ.150)
6. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.
7. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.
8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.
9. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.
PART I
CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
1. The term 'curriculum' in the field of education refers to
(1) methods of teaching and the content to be taught
(2) overall programme of the school which students experience on a day-to-day basis
(3) evaluation process
(4) text-material to be used in the class
Ans: (2)
2. At lower classes, play-way method of teaching is based on
(1) theory of physcial education programmes
(2) principles of methods of teaching
(3) psychological principles of development and growth
(4) sociological principles of teaching
Ans: (3)
3. "A young child responds to a new situation on the basis of the response made by him/her in a similar situation as in the past." This is related to
(1) 'Law of Analogy' of learning
(2) 'Law of Effect' of learning
(3) 'Law of Attitude' of learning process
(4) 'Law of Readiness' of learning
Ans: (2)
4. 'Dyslexia' is associated with
(1) Mental disorder
(2) Mathematical disorder
(3) Reading disorder
(4) Behavioural disorder
Ans: (3)
5. Education of children with special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal children
(2) by methods developed for special children in special Schools
(3) in special school
(4) by special teachers in special schools
Ans: (1)
6. To make assessment a 'useful and interesting' process, one should be careful about
(1) making comparisons between different students
(2) labelling students as intelligent or average learners
(3) using a variety of ways' to collect information about the student's learning across the scholastic and co-scholastic boundaries
(4) using technical language to give feedback
Ans: (3)
7. ____ is not considered a sign of 'being gifted'.
(1) Creative ideas
(2) Fighting with others
(3) Novelty in expression
(4) Curiosity
Ans: (2)
8."Children actively construct their understanding of the world" is a statement attributed to
(1) Piaget
(2) Pavlov
(3) Kohlberg
(4) Skinner
Ans: (1)
9. Kritika who does not talk much at home, talks a lot at school. It shows that
(1) the school provides opportunities to children to talk a lot
(2) teachers demand that children should talk a lot at school
(3) she does not like her home at all
(4) her thoughts get acknowledged at school
Ans: (4)
10. A teacher should make an attempt to understand the potentialities of herlhis students. Which of the following fields is related to this objective?
(1) Educational Sociology
(2) Social Philosophy
(3) Media - Psychology
(4) Educational Psychology
Ans: (4)

11. Motivation, in the process of learning,
(1) sharpens the memory of learners
(2) differentiates new. learning from old learning
(3) makes learners think unidirectionally
(4) creates interest for learning among young learners
Ans: (4)
12. Learning can be enriched if
(1) situations from the real world are brought into the class in which students interact with each other and the teacher facilitates
(2) more and more teaching aids are used in the class
(3) teachers use different types of lectures and explanation
(4) due attention is paid to periodic tests in the class
Ans: (1)
13. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of the process of learning?
(1) Educational institutions are the only place where learning takes place
(2) Learning is a comprehensive process
(3) Learning is goal-oriented
(4) Unlearning is also a learning process
Ans: (1)
14. A student of V-grade with 'visual deficiency' should be
(1) excused to do a lower level of work
(2) helped with hislher routine-work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the classroom and provided support through Audio CDs
(4) given special treatment III the classroom
Ans: (3)
15. Which of the following should be considered the most important quality of a teacher at primary level ?
(1) Eagerness to teach
(2) Patience and perseverance
(3) Competence in methods of teaching and knowledge of subjects
(4) Competence to teach in highly standardised language
Ans: (2)
16. The stage in which a child begins to think logically about objects and events is known as
(1) Sensori-motor stage
(2) Formal operational stage
(3) Pre-operational stage
(4) Concrete operational stage
Ans: (4)
17. A teacher, because of his/her democratic nature, allows students to sit all over the class. Some sit together and discuss or do group reading. Some sit quietly, and read themselves. A parent does not like it. Which of the following may be the best way to handle the situation ?
(1) Parents should complain against the teacher to the principal
(2) Parents should request the principal to change the section of their ward
(3) Parents should show trust in the teacher and discuss the problem with the teacher
(4) Parents should take away the child from that school
Ans: (3)
18. The 'insight theory of learning' is promoted by
(1) 'Gestalt' theorists
(2) Pavlov
(3) Jean Piaget
(4) Vygotsky
Ans: (1)
19. Four distinct stages of children's intellectual development are identified by
(1) Kohlberg
(2) Erikson
(3) Skinner
(4) Piaget
Ans: (4)
20. In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
(1) Adolescence
(2) Adulthood
(3) Early childhood
(4) Childhood
Ans: (1)
21. Parents should play a _ role in the learning process of young children.
(1) negative
(2) proactive
(3) sympathetic
(4) neutral
Ans: (2)
22. "Development is a never ending process." This idea is associated with
(1) Principle of interrelation
(2) Principle of continuity
(3) Principle of integration
(4) Principle of interaction
Ans: (2)
23. Which is the place where the child's 'cognitive' development is defined in the best way?
(1) Playground
(2) School and classroom environment
(3) Auditorium
(4) Home
Ans: (2)
24. Which of the following is not a sign of an intelligent young child?
(1) One who has the ability to cram long essays very quickly
(2) One who has the ability to communicate fluently and appropriately
(3) One who carries on thinking in an abstract manner
(4) One who can adjust oneself in a new environment
Ans: (1)
25. ____ is considered a sign of motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in the class
(2) Remedial work given by the teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class
Ans: (3)
26. Which of the following is not related to the socio-psychological needs of the child?
(1) Need for appreciation or social approval
(2) Need for emotional security
(3) Regular elimination of waste products from the body
(4) Need for company
Ans: (3)
27. 'Mind mapping' refers to
(1) a technique to enhance comprehension
(2) a plan of action for an adventure
(3) drawing the picture of a mind
(4) researching the functioning of the mind
Ans: (4)
28. The best way, specially at primary level, to address the learning difficulties of students is to use
(1) a variety of teaching methods suited to the disability
(2) expensive and, glossy support material
(3) easy and interesting textbooks
(4) story-telling method
Ans: (1)
29. According to Piaget, at which of the following stages does a child begin, to think logically about abstract propositions?
(1) Concrete operational stage (07 - 11 years)
(2) Formal operational stage (11 years and up)
(3) Sensori-motor stage (Birth - 02 years)
(4) Pre-operational stage (02 - 07 years)
Ans:


30. Which of the following will foster creativity among learners ?
(1) Teaching the students the practical value of good education
(2) Providing opportunities to question and to nurture the innate talents of every learner
(3) Emphasizing achievement goals from the beginning of school life
(4) Coaching students for good marks in examination
Ans: (2)
PART II
MATHEMATICS
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
31. While teaching comparison of fractions which the numerators are same e.g. 3/5 and 3/7 Rohit’s response was "since the numerators are same and since 7 is larger than 5,
therefore 3/7 is bigger than 3/5 .”
This suggests that
(1) Rohit does not know the concept of equivalent fractions
(2) Rohit has not practised well
(3) Rohit does not understand the magnitude of fractions
(4) Rohit does not know the concept of numerator and denominator
Ans: (1)


32. Examine the following matchstick patterns:
If the pattern continues, how many matchsticks are needed in the 15th stage?
(1) 61
(2) 62
(3) 105
(4) 65
Ans: (2)


33. To introduce the concept of fractions, a teacher can begin with
(1) writing fractions in the form of a/b where b ≠ 0
(2) identifying fractional parts of things around them
(3) identifying numerators and denominators of different fractions
(4) finding fractions on a number line
Ans: (2)
34. is 3/4 of a ‘unit’. What will be 1½ ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ans: (4)
35. The number 49532 rounded off to the nearest thousand is
(1) 41000
(2) 50000
(3) 49000
(4) 49500
Ans: (2)
36. In the following, which is the greatest number?
(1) [(2+2)2]2
(2) (2+2+2)2
(3) (4)2
(4) (2×2×2)2
Ans: (1)


37. "Start a discussion in the class on things in the child's environment which roll and slide. Help children to look at their shapes and see how some things roll and others slide."
Source: Math Magic II, NCERTSuggestions like this have been given in the NCERT textbook of Class-II to help a teacher understand that(1) discussions supplemented with demonstration help students to understand concepts better(2) discussions bring multiple perspectives into the classroom(3) discussion is the best strategy for the mathematics classroom(4) it is imperative for the teachers to draw the children's attention to the things around themAns: (1)
38. The chapters in the NCERT textbook of mathematics of Class-IV have titles like 38. "The Junk Seller", "Trip to Bhopal", "The Way the World Looks".This shift has been done to(1) make it interesting by relating it to everyday life(2) know about selling junk and travelling(3) challenge the students to guess the mathematical content in the chapters(4) make them understand differentlyAns: (1)
39. The weight of some mangoes is 2 kg 600 g and that of some apples is 1 kg 450 g. The weight of the mangoes is greater than that of the apples by(1) 1 kg 200 g(2) 150 g(3) 4 kg 50 g(4) 1 kg 150 gAns: (4)
40."Problem solving" as a strategy of doing mathematics involves(1) activity based approach(2) estimation(3) extensive practice(4) using clues to arrive at a solutionAns: (1)
41. Sequence the following tasks as they would be taken up while. developing the understanding of shapes and space across primary classes :a. Matches the properties of 2-D shapes by observing their sides and cornersb. Describes intuitively the properties of 2-D shapesc. Sorts 2-D shapesd. Describes the various 2-D shapes by counting their sides, corners and diagonals(1) a, d, b, c(2) c, a, d, b(3) d, b, a, c(4) c, b, d, aAns: (2)
42. If an operator is defined as4 3=4+5+65 4=5+6+7+86 4=6+7+8+9what will n 8 be equal to ?(1) 8n + 36(2) n + 36(3) n + 28(4) 8n + 28Ans: (2)
43. A teacher asked in a class to represent 1/8 of .Which amongst the following is an incorrect representation?(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans:
44. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is(1) to fill the progress report(2) to plan the question paper for the end-term examination(3) to know the gaps in children's understanding(4) to give feedback to the parentsAns: (3)
45. 407928 is read as(1) Forty thousand nine hundred twenty eight(2) Four lakh seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight(3) Four lakh seventy nine thousand twenty eight(4) Forty seven thousand nine hundred twenty eightAns: (2)
46. The length of a rectangle is 'l' and its width is half of its length. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle if the length is doubled keeping the width same?(1) 6l(2) 3l(3) 4l(4) 5lAns: (4)
47. Which is true for a hexagonal pyramid?(1) It has two hexagonal faces and six rectangular faces(2) It has six hexagonal faces joined by six rectangular faces(3) It has six faces and each face is a hexagon(4) It has a hexagonal base with six triangular faces meeting at a pointAns: (4)
48. How many 4-digit numbers are there in the Hindu-Arabic Numeration System?(1) 9999(2) 9000(3) 99(4) 8999Ans: (2)
49. Vikas teaches mathematics to a class of 56 students. He believes that conducting a test is effective if the feedback is given immediately. He conducted a short class test of 10marks. What is the best possible way of giving the feedback effectively?(1) He can have a whole class discussion on ways in which they have got their solutions and which is the effective strategy to arrive at the correct answer(2) Pick out any copy at random and discuss the method followed in the copy on the board(3) He can let the students check each other's answer(4) He can explain the solution of each problem on the board and ask the students to check their answer on their ownAns:
50. When teaching 'shapes', a teacher can plan a trip of historical places as(1) field trips have been recommended by CBSE, so they are a must(2) shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines(3) she has completed most of the syllabus well in time and needs to provide leisure(4) it would be a good break from the routine mathematics class and an opportunity to improve communicative killsAns: (2)
51. In a dice, the numbers on the opposite faces add up to 7. Which amongst the following will fold into a dice?(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans: (3)
52. To introduce the concept of area, a teacher can start with(1) calculating area of figures with the help of counting unit square(2) explaining of formulae for finding area of figures of different shapes(3) comparing area of any figure with the help of different objects like palm, leaf, pencil, notebook, etc.(4) calculating area of a rectangle by finding length and breadth of a rectangle and using the formula for area of a rectangle (i.e. length x breadth)Ans: (3)
53. When faced with word problems, Rajan usually asks "Should I add or subtract?" "Should I multiply or divide?". Such questions suggest(1) Rajan lacks understanding of number operations(2) Rajan cannot add and multiply(3) Rajan seeks opportunities to disturb the class(4) Rajan has problems in comprehending languageAns:
54. A rhombus has diagonals of length 8 cm and 6 cm. Find its perimeter.(1) 24 cm(2) 28 cm(3) 18 cm(4) 20 cmAns: (4)
55. Look at the following table:
Station Bus 1Bus 2 Bus 3
New Delhi Departure 19:15 12:30 16:45
Faridabad Arrival
Departure 20:22
20:37 13:25
13:35 19:10
19:22
Mathura Arrival 00:40 18:10 21:55
Which bus takes the least time to reach Mathura from New Delhi?(1) Bus 3(2) Both Bus 2 and Bus 3 take equal time(3) Bus 1(4) Bus 2Ans: (3)
56. When teaching addition of fractions, a teacher came across the following error: 1/2 + 1/3 = 2/5 What remedial action can the teacher take in such a situation?(1) Help the child to understand the magnitude of each fraction(2) Help the child to understand the concept of LCM(3) Ask the child to practise as much as she can(4) No intervention is needed because she will understand as she growsAns: (2)
57. Sequence the following tasks as they are taken up while developing the concept of measurement :a. Learners use standard units to measure length.b. Learners use non-standard units to measure length.c. Learners verify objects using simple observationd. Learners understand the relationship between metric units.(1) c, b, a, d(2) d, a, c, b(3) a, b, d, c(4) b, a, c, dAns: (1)
58. The NCF (2005) considers that Mathematics involves 'a certain way of thinking and reasoning'. From the statements given below, pick out one which does not reflect the above principle:(1) The method by which it is taught(2) Giving students set formulae to solve the numerical questions(3) The way the material presented in the textbooks is written(4) The activities and exercises chosen for the classAns: (2)
59."These days prices have started rising." Which amongst the following graphs represents this situation?(1) (2) (3) (4) Ans: (1)
60. To be a "good" mathematician one must be able to(1) understand, apply and make connections across the concepts(2) master the techniques of answering questions(3) memorise most of the formulae(4) solve the problem in no timeAns: (1)

PART III
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
61. As an EVS teacher, you plan to take the students to the zoo. Which of the following activities would you not allow the students to undertake?
(1) Take along lots of eatables for the animals at the zoo
(2) Try to find out the food taken up by different animals at the zoo
(3) Collect photographs of the animals they expect to see at the zoo
(4) Take their drawing books along with them to draw what they see at the zoo
Ans: (1)
62. The concept of 'seed germination' can be taught best by
(1) asking the students to perform an activity to sow seeds, observe different stages and draw them
(2) showing photographs of seed germination
(3) showing germinated seeds to the class and explaining the process of germination
(4) presenting the germination stages through drawings on the boardAns: (1)
63. Mira and Divya are young girls. Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and bread. Divya, on the other hand, takes an iron deficient diet. Which of the
following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to suffer from, respectively?
(1)Obesity and scurvy
(2)Scurvy and anaemia
(3)Anaemia and night blindness
(4)Obesity and anaemia
Ans: (4)
64. To make children aware of different kinds of fuel, a teacher can
(1) show some samples of fuels in the class
(2) discuss with children about possible kinds of fuel that can be used for cooking, along with a short film
(3) show pictures of fuels on a chart
(4) ask children to list different fuelsAns: (2)
65. The skills required to read a map include
(1) excellent communication skills to draw out the expressive ability
(2) ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions
(3) excellent drawing and painting skills
(4) ability to use calculations and sketch positions on a globeAns: (2)
66. Giving importance to individual experiences of children in an EVS class will benefit the teacher
(1) to connect the subject to the learners' experiential world and promote reflection and learning
(2) to save her energy as children enjoy talking
(3) to know the unique experiences of children
(4) to help and improve the language and communication skills of the childrenAns: (1)
67. It has been observed that the process of digestion is faster inside the stomach than outside because
(1) the digestive juices when kept outside the stomach become inactive
(2) the food is churned in the stomach thereby increasing the surface area for quicker enzyme action
(3) the digestive juices inside the stomach are acidic, while 'outside they are alkaline
(4) the amount of digestive juices produced in the stomach in the presence of food is much more
Ans: (2)
68. Which of the following statements is not an objective of teaching EVS at the primary level?
(1) To load learners with terms and definitions for assessment
(2) To internalise the values of concern for life and environment
(3) Arouse curiosity about the natural and social environment
(4) Engage in exploratory and hands-on activities that lead to the development of cognitive and psychomotor skillsAns: (1)
69. An egret bird is often seen on a buffalo's back. This is because the egret
(1) feeds on parasites on the buffalo's back
(2) feeds on insects present in the grass
(3) loves to sing while sitting on the buffalo's back '
(4) rests after flying for a whileAns: (1)
70. The idea of showing a sample of a railway ticket in the EVS textbook is to
(1) enhance the skills of students to arrive at conclusions
(2) give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the skill of observation
(3) give the students an idea 'of the rail fare
(4) provide them the knowledge of various abbreviations used in the ticketAns: (2)
71. Which of the following represents one of the objectives of teaching EVS at Primary School?
(1) To inform the learners about the books they should read to expand their knowledge
(2) To connect the experiences of the learners in school with the outside world
(3) To make learners aware of technical terms and definitions
(4) To assess technical terms related to EVSAns: (2)
72. Which of the following statements about assignments is correct?
(1) Assignments provide learners an opportunity to search for information, construct their own ideas and articulate them
(2) Assignments can be done by parents, brothers or sisters depending on the talent that they possess
(3) Assignments need to be given as classwork followed by homework every day to provide variety and practice
(4) Assignments should be the only method of assessmentAns: (1)
73. Simple experiments and demonstrations can be performed in the EVS class
(1) to discuss ideas, record and analyse observations on the basis of questions raised by students
(2) to control the students to ensure discipline in the class'
(3) to enable children to learn on their own and sharpen their observation skills
(4) to follow what is being done in the senior classesAns: (1)
74. Durga lives in a village and cooks food on a chulha (earthen stove) using wood or cow dung cakes as fuel. She has been suffering from severe cough
for the last three months. This may be due to the
(1) smoke produced by burning fuels which may have caused her allergy
(2) old age and pollution inside and outside her hut
(3) carbon monoxide produced by burning fuel which may have been deposited in her respiratory tract
(4) soot produced by burning the fuels which may have been deposited in her respiratory tractAns: (4)
75. After the lunch break, while teaching EVS, you find that students are not. taking interest in the lesson. What would you do?
(1) Take the children out to play in the ground
(2) Ask them to put their heads down on the desk and relax
(3) Use audio-visual aids based on multiple intelligences to make the lesson interesting
(4) Change the topic immediatelyAns: (3)
76. A school planned an educational trip for Class-V students to Rajasthan. What would be your expectation from the children during the visit?
(1) They should note down their questions, if any, and ask the parents after reaching home
(2) They should observe everything without asking questions about it
(3) They should enjoy themselves
(4) They should observe keenly, make notes and share their observations with other students and the teacherAns: (4)
77. Rina separated the garbage from the house into two piles as shown below:
Rina has separated the garbage waste into two piles depending on the criteria
(1) are household / industrial waste
(2) have odour / are odourless
(3) can be decomposed / cannot be decomposed
(4) can be recycled / cannot be recycledAns: (3)
78. Chipko Movement was strengthened under the leadership of
(1) A.K. Banerjee
(2) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(3) Amrita Devi Bishnoi
(4) Medha PatkarAns: (2)
79. Vitamins are substances
(1) required in small quantities to prevent deficiency diseases
(2) that increase our metabolic rate leading to loss of weight
(3) required as medicines to make us healthy
(4) that build muscles to keep us strongAns: (1)
80. In rural areas, cow dung is used to coat the floor and walls of huts to
(1) give a natural colour to the floor
(2) keep the insects away
(3) make them smooth and clean
(4) make them rough to increase frictionAns: (3)
81. A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can be achieved by the process called
(1) Harvesting
(2) Handpicking
(3) Threshing
(4) WinnowingAns:
82. Which one of the following is not an objective of including riddles and puzzles in the EVS textbook?
(1) To confuse the mind of the students and let them enjoy the confusion
(2) To develop curiosity and ability to think creatively
(3) To develop critical thinking ability in students
(4) To develop reasoning ability in studentsAns: (1)
83. A man with blood group '0' marries a woman with blood group 'A'. The chance of their first child having blood group '0' is
(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%Ans: (3)
84. A Shooting Star is a
(1) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earth's atmosphere
(2) star which moves with a constant speed
(3) shining object which moves with a constant speed in the atmosphere
(4) star with a tail at the endAns: (1)
85. The difference between boiling and evaporation is that
(1) boiling causes reduction in volume of liquid while evaporation does not
(2) changing of boiling liquid into vapour can be seen but evaporation cannot be seen
(3) boiling causes a change of state of water while evaporation does not
(4) evaporation can take place at any temperature while boiling cannotAns: (4)
86. At the primary stage, assessments should consist of
(1) half-yearly and annual examinations at the end of the year
(2) home assignments and class assignments every week to rate young learners under the categories of pass or fail
(3) continuous and unstructured teacher observations to be shared with learners and parents
(4) formal tests and games done every week and recorded in the Report CardAns: (3)
87. A lemon sinks in normal water but floats in salty water because the density of
(1) lemon increases in salt water
(2) lemon decreases in salt water
(3) salt water is more than normal water
(4) normal water is more than salt water
Ans: (3)
88. Cooked rice can be preserved for a longer time in a refrigerator because
(1) moisture content in the food is reduced at low temperature
(2) refrigerators contain certain chemicals which kill the microbes
(3) microbes become inactive at low temperature
(4) microbes are destroyed and killed at low temperatureAns: (3)
89. Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of
(1) eggs of mosquito in red blood cells
(2) Plasmodium in red blood cells
(3) ruptured liver cells in blood
(4) larvae of mosquito in bloodAns: (2)
90. The use of poems and story telling to explain concepts in an EVS class helps to
(1) take care of the language and cultural diversity among learners
(2) channelize the energies of the students in the right direction
(3) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting
(4) promote the ability to imagine and explore the nature of the world at the local and global levelAns: (4)
PART IV
LANGUAGE I
ENGLISH
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
91. The spoken skills in a language teaching classroom can be developed through
(1) enabling activities with a focus on conversation skills leading to communicative competence
(2) group activities where learners can talk in whichever language they would like to
(3) engaging in small talk as confident agressive learners
(4) emotionally connecting with learners
Ans: (1)
92. Lalita, a teacher of young learners, provides them with opportunities to play with clay, water and sand so as to
(1) please them and make them happy
(2) dirty their hands so that they may learn to wash them
(3) build fine motor skills, especially of the fingers and thumb
(4) encourage play with no other objective
Ans: (3)
93. How will a teacher best teach 'writing' skills to a class?
(1) Through dictation
(2) By asking students to learn articles and rewrite them
(3) By brainstorming ides and asking students to write in their own words
(4) By asking students to write neatlyAns: (3)
94. Mary, a young teacher, believes in personalised learning because she thinks that
(1) all learners must learn on their own
(2) children must enjoy their learning
(3) every person must be exposed to learning
(4) every learner is unique and needs to be given a chance to develop to the best of their ability
Ans: (4)
95. In a diverse classroom, learners find it difficult to speak and write good English and often lapse into their mother-tongue because
(1) they do not have the ability to learn English
(2) they are slow learners
(3) they are not motivated to learn
(4) they lack enough competence and the structures of the two languages are differentAns: (4)
96. A child studying in Class-III says: “I dranked the water.” It indicates that the child
(1) has overgeneralized the rule for marking past tense verbs, showing that learning is taking place
(2) is careless and needs to be told that she should be conscious of such errors
(3) has not learnt grammar rules properly
(4) should memories the correct sentence
Ans: (1)
97. Leena uses Big Reading Books in her language classes to
(1) use these illustrated colourful books for reading together
(2) use them for big students of different ages
(3) allow students to read at home
(4) ensure books carry a lot of information
Ans: (1)
98. Grammar should be taught by
(1) giving clear explanations
(2) enabling practice in context
(3) asking students to learn rules
(4) making learners do written assignments
Ans: (2)
99. Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education?
(1) "Good, it will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive."
(2) "Such children should go to special schools where they will learn better."
(3) "Oh! How can I teach children who cannot even read? "
(4) "I'm worried that my class may not accept these children and some of the mischievous children may even harm the poor kids."
Ans: (1)
100. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 stipulates that learning should be
(1) through activities in a child-friendly manner
(2) supported by extra coaching
(3) restricted to co-scholastic subjects
(4) carefully monitored by frequent testingAns: (1)
101. A teacher can cater to the learning styles of all the children by
(1) advising the children to join drawing/dance/music classes
(2) employing a variety of teaching methods and modes of assessment which cater to diversity among' learners
(3) teaching every lesson thoroughly and revising the lessons
(4) testing the children frequentlyAns: (1)
102. As part of a class project, a teacher planned a salad fruit celebration day in which all learners needed to participate. The boys protested as they felt that boys do not cook. Theteacher should
(1) make an attempt to counsel the boys, impressing upon them that gender stereotyping is not healthy
(2) respect the sentiments of the boys and allow them not to participate in the class project
(3) ignore such protests and tell the boys what she thinks of their bias
(4) complain to the head of the school seeking action against the boysAns:
103. Read the two sentences given below:
The lizard ate the fly.
The fly ate the lizard.
A teacher can use this example to explain that
(1) they are examples of reported speech
(2) they are a collection of words
(3) there is no difference in the two sentences because both have the same words
(4) when subject and object change positions, the meaning of the sentence changesAns: (4)
104. Ritu often makes errors in Subject-Verb concord. The teacher can help her by
(1) asking Ritu to learn the rules and scolding her
(2) asking Ritu to write the rules ten times in her notebook
(3) taking up many examples for the entire class and paying special attention to Ritu
(4) explaining to her the rules of grammarAns: (3)
105. Ria is unable to pronounce the words 'smile' and 'school' clearly. As her teacher, what will you do?
(1) Humiliate Ria by isolating her and asking her to repeat the words
(2) Asking the entire class to repeat the words and appreciating Ria when she repeats them correctly
(3) Make Ria repeat the 'words' many times
(4) Make Ria understand the meaning and sound pattern and get the class as a whole to listen to these words through an audio-visual mediumAns: (4)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 106 to 114) by selecting the most appropriate option.1. Max Weber laid the foundation for my belief that decent and hard-working people with high aspirations make great nations, no matter what the odds are. This was the first piece of the development puzzle for me. Mahatma Gandhi opened my eyes to the importance of good leadership in raising the aspirations of people, making them accept sacrifices to achieve a grand vision, and most importantly, in converting that vision into reality. He unleashed the most powerful instrument for gaining trust - leadership by example. He ate,dressed, travelled and lived like the poor. Walking the talk was extremely important to the Mahatma who understood the pulse of our people like no other Indian leader. The biggest lesson for me from Gandhi's book and life is the importance of leading by example. I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle. 2. Frantz Fanon's book on the colonizer mindset of elites in a post-colonial society opened my eyes to the role of the bureaucracy and the elite in decelerating the progress of the poor and the disenfranchised. The colonial mindset of the 'dark elite in white masks" in a post-colonial society - the mindset that the ruled and the rulers have different sets of rights and responsibilities with a huge asymmetry in favour of the rulers - was indeed the third piece of the development puzzle. I see this attitude of the Indian elite every day inhow they send their children to English medium schools while forcing the children of the poor into vernacular schools, extol the virtues of poverty while living in luxury, and glorify the rural life while they sit comfortably in cities. Source: A Better India, A Better World'
- N.R. Narayana Murthy (Adapted)
106. The main purpose of the author in the above passage is to
(1) delineate the lesson he has learnt for the development of a nation
(2) prioritise goals for only economic development of India
(3) discuss the different writers he has read
(4) argue why India should not be considered a developed countryAns: (1)
107. The first piece of the development puzzle, according to the author, is
(1) imbuing the citizens of the country with decency and aspirations
(2) the need for making people understand the importance of leading an idealistic and simple life
(3) creating a team of industrious people for a national cause
(4) the importance of decent, inspired and industrious people for a nation's developmentAns: (4)
108. Mahatma Gandhi proved that only leadership by example can
(1) gain the trust of the people so that they are willing to make sacrifices for a larger cause
(2) inspire people to eat, dress, travel and live like the poor
(3) mobilise the people of a country against colonial rule
(4) fully and properly understand the pulse of the people of a countryAns: (1)
109. The expression 'walking the talk' means
(1) being diplomatic in one's behaviour an words
(2) practising what one preaches
(3) addressing public gatherings in an election campaign
(4) talking to the common people by mingling with themAns: (2)
110. The colonial mindset of 'dark elite in white masks' with reference to the passage is
(1) looking down upon the poor and the disenfranchised
(2) the bureaucratic practice of according topmost priority to confidentiality in official dealings
(3) discriminating people on the basis of the colour of their skin
(4) an assumption that the administrators and politicians have more rights and privileges than the common people
Ans: (4)
111. Extolling 'the virtues of poverty while living in luxury' is an instance of
(1) the ideal of a good government
(2) the need to make people adopt a simple life
(3) the hypocrisy of the people of our country
(4) practising what you preachAns: (3)
112. 'I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.' The underlined part of this sentence is a/an
(1) Noun clause
(2) Verb clause
(3) Adjective clause
(4) Adverbial phraseAns: (1)
113. Pick out a word or phrase from the second paragraph of the passage that means the same as 'to make (something) go slower'.
(1) decelerating
(2) vernacular
(3) disenfranchised
(4) dark eliteAns: (1)
114. 'Development' is a noun with '-ment' as a suffix. Which of the following will become a noun if we add the suffix '-ment' to it?
(1) Enchant
(2) Endure
(3) Extort
(4) Enter
Ans: (1)
Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 115 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option.
On A Tired HousewifeHere lies a poor woman who was always tired,
She lived in a house where help wasn't hired:
Her last words on earth were: 'Dear friends,
I am going
To where there's no cooking, or washing, or sewing,
For everything there is exact to my wishes,
For where they don't eat there's no washing of dishes.
I'll be where loud anthems will always be ringing,
But having no voice I'll be quit of the singing.
Don't mourn for me now, don't mourn for me never,
I am going to do nothing for ever and ever.'
Anonymous
115. The woman described in the poem
(1) lived in her own house
(2) worked in the house of a rich man
(3) was very busy doing chores
(4) was no more
Ans: (4)
116. The woman was always tired because
(1) she did all the household work without any help
(2) she had hardly anything to eat
(3) she was physically very weak
(4) she was suffering from a serious ailmentAns: (1)
117. The woman wanted to go to a place where
(1) people would take good care of her
(2) people would sincerely mourn for her
(3) people didn't sing or dance
(4) people didn't cook, wash or sewAns: (4)
118. The woman's account in the poem shows
(1) how a woman can escape from work
(2) how we should help each other
(3) how overworked a housewife is
(4) that there is no work in heavenAns: (3)
119. 'For everything there is exact to my wishes,' In this line, the word ‘exact' can be interpreted to mean
(1) according
(2) leading
(3) contrary
(4) contributing
Ans: (1)
120. The rhyme pattern in the poem is
(1) aa, bb, cc, dd, ee
(2) aa, ab, bc, cd, de
(3) ab, ab, ab, ab, ab
(4) aa, ab, cd, cd, eeAns:
PART V
LANGUAGE II
ENGLISH
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 126) by selecting the most appropriate option.1. This was one of the Old Man's pet schemes; and one about which he would brook no interference. Each child would review the events of his school week in his own words, in hisown way; he was free to comment, to criticize, to agree or disagree, with any person, subject or method, as long as it was in-some way associated with the school. No one andnothing was sacred, from the Headmaster down, and the child, moreover, was safe from any form of reprisal.2. "Look at it this way," Mr. Florian had said. "It is of advantage to both pupil and teacher. If a child wants to write about something which matters to him, he will take some pains toset it down as carefully and with as much detail as possible; that must in some way improve his written English in terms of spelling, construction and style. Week by week weare able, through his reviews, to follow and observe his progress in such things. As for the teachers, we soon get a pretty good idea what the children think of us and whether or notwe are getting close to them. It may sometimes be rather deflating to discover that a well-prepared lesson did not really excite Johnny Smith's interest, but, after all, the lesson wasintended to benefit Johnny Smith, not his teacher.
121. The scheme, according to the Old Man, was useful because
(1) it was excellent feedback for the teacher, principal and school
(2) he was slightly eccentric
(3) it was meant to humiliate the teacher
(4) it was meant to give power to the teacherAns: (1)
122. 'Pet schemes' in line 1 refers to
(1) a student he is fond of
(2) a formula he had discovered
(3) a pet animal
(4) a method he has advocatedAns: (4)
123. The 'Old Man' refers to
(1) a parent of the school
(2) a student of the school
(3) a teacher of the school
(4) the headmaster called Mr. FlorianAns: (4)
124. The advantages of the scheme were many. Pick out the disadvantage from the list given below.
(1) Sometimes deflating to the teacher's ego
(2) Diagnostic and remedial for the student and the teacher
(3) Effective feedback
(4) Enhanced writing skills
Ans: (1)
125. 'Sacred' in the context of the Headmaster means
(1) that even 'he' was not above the 'scheme' he advocated for students
(2) he believed in the sacred nature of all life
(3) that he was a holy man
(4) that he was the powerful head of the schoolAns: (1)
126. 'Brook' as a verb means 'to tolerate' in para l. As a noun, it means
(1) Tolerance
(2) Allow
(3) Suffer
(4) StreamAns: (4)
Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 127 to 135) by selecting the most appropriate option.1. Karuna Verma is bewildered. "I don't know how she did it," she says about her mother, Renu Chopra. Karuna's childhood memories are of her father leaving late for office sothat, by then, her mother would be-back from work. Of her parents working in sync to make sure the kids were well taken care of .Of her mother handling kitchen and classroom withease.
2. When her own daughter was born, Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act. But it did not turn out to be as easy as it seemed. For starters, her parents' era was different fromhers. As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families, resuming work would have meant leaving her daughter with a maid while she was away. Herdaughter's formative years would be spent with an outsider, a thought that did not appeal to Karuna. She quit her teaching job in a school.
3. For a woman who was encouraged to be independent. throughout her life, the decision to quit and stay at home was a difficult one. Ironically it was her mother who urged her toquit the job and become a full-time mother. For Karuna, being a housewife is one of the tougher jobs she has had. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. "I make sure all mypersonal work is done when Avni is asleep. Earlier I had a set routine. My husband and I used to wake up at 6 a.m. I would re-heat the food the maid had cooked the day beforeand pack it for lunch. Then we used to head off to work, and at night, we would go out. I had a lot of time to myself and for my husband then," says Karuna.
4. The routine is quite different now. Karuna has taken to cooking. She wakes up quite early and makes sure all her work is done before the baby is up. The rest of the day flies by,pandering to two-year-old Avni's needs.
Source: The Week, March 13, 2011 (Adapted)
127. Karuna Verma is bewildered at
(1) the responsibility of bringing up a daughter in a big city
(2) her mother's ability to combine her career with household work
(3) the amount of work that she has to do after becoming a mother
(4) the late hours of work that her father followedAns: (2)
128. ' ... parents working in sync' means
(1) father earning and mother taking care of children
(2) parents having staggered office hours and sharing household work
(3) parents pooling their resources together to take care of expenses
(4) husband and wife sinking their differences to preserve domestic harmonyAns: (2)
129. ' Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act.' In this sentence, the term 'balancing act' implies
(1) managing the time efficiently so that parents can spend quality time with their children
(2) making adjustments in order to balance work and leisure properly
(3) sharing of responsibilities by both husband and wife
(4) a mother's ability to look after her child without quitting her jobAns: (1)
130. 'As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families ............ . In this sentence 'their families' refers to
(1) Families of friends in Andheri, Mumbai
(2) Karuna's parents and in-laws
(3) Karuna's mother and father's families
(4) Karuna's husband's familyAns: (2)
131. Karuna's parents and her husband's parents probably lived
(1) in Mumbai but not in Andheri
(2) with Karuna and her husband
(3) in Andheri, Mumbai
(4) in some other cityAns: (4)
132. Karuna decided to quit her job because
(1) she wanted to have more time, to herself and for her husband
(2) she wanted to pay more attention to her cooking
(3) she Was not interested in her teaching job
(4) she did not want her daughter to spend her early years with a maidAns: (4)
133. It was ironical that Karuna's mother should advise her to quit her job and stay at home because
(1) Karuna's parents had always advised her that home was much more important than career
(2) Karuna's mother herself had not quit her job to take care of children as she encouraged independence of women
(3) Karuna herself was keen on quitting her job
(4) Karuna's parents had insisted that household chores should be shared between husband and wifeAns: (2)
134. After Karuna quit her job
(1) she sent her maid away as she felt that the maid was a bad influence on Avni
(2) she had no time for herself as Avni needed all her attention and care
(3) she had a lot of time to herself and for her husband
(4) she occupied herself with cooking to spend her time usefullyAns: (2)
135. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. This sentence can be written in reported speech as
(1) Karuna said that she had no time for herself
(2) Karuna says that she had no time for herself
(3) Karuna says that she have no time for herself
(4) Karuna said that she had no time for myselfAns: (1)
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
136. Remedial teaching as part of Formative Assessment means
(1) diagnosing and addressing gaps in learning
(2) teaching beyond the textbooks
(3) extra coaching by parents
(4) teaching for gifted students
Ans:
137. Which of the following is a value associated with an inclusive classroom?
(1) Competition
(2) Envy
(3) Sympathy
(4) CollaborationAns:
138. The aim of mechanical drills is to
(1) strengthen the role learning capacity of the learners
(2) encourage creative use of language among the learners
(3) improve the fluency of the learners
(4) improve the accuracy of the learnersAns:
139. Learners are involved in individual activities pair work, group work and whole-class work because these
(1) provide the learners opportunities to relax in a classroom
(2) have the sole aim of introducing variety in a language classroom
(3) enable the already over-worked teacher to preserve her energy thereby becoming more effective
(4) afford the learners opportunities to use the language in a focused manner for real-life interactionAns:
140. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) All formative tasks are meant for assessment.
(2) Formative assessment, to be effective, must be conducted only after teaching a lesson
(3) While all formative tasks are meant for improving teaching-learning, some are used for assessment too.
(4) Formative assessment helps us to grade students into good, average and poor.Ans:
141. When young learners seem to lose interest in a lesson, the teacher should
(1) tell a story or conduct an interesting activity
(2) ask them to sit quietly for some time
(3) allow them to go out and play
(4) ask them to sleep for a whileAns:
142. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has included 'all round development of the child' as one of the aims of education because
(1) it - nurtures the physical, mental and emotional aspects of the child(2) it ensures that every child is a part of a workforce
(3) every child grows rapidly between six to fourteen years
(4) proper health care is essentialAns:
143. Teachers do not give the meaning of new words to learners directly because
(1) learners do not like to be given the meaning of words
(2) it prevents learners from discovering the meaning through puzzling out using clues
(3) learners already know the meaning of the words
(4) vocabulary will not be enrichedAns:
144. Which of the following is an instance of non-formal learning?
(1) Children learning to cook from their parents
(2) Children learning a new game from friends
(3) Children learning correspondence lessons through
(4) Children learning to draw from their art teacherAns:
145. Group project work helps in developing
(1) a high level of ambition to achieve
(2) collaboration, critical thinking and problem solving
(3) competition among learners to excel in academics
(4) good memory in the young learnersAns:
146. What type of questions promote thinking skills in children?(1) Factual questions
(2) Questions based purely on the reading text
(3) Personal response questions
(4) Closed-ended questionsAns:
147. 'Students need to brainstorm ideas, organise them, draft, edit and revise their work,' is a 'process' which reflects
(1) Listening skills
(2) Speaking skills
(3) Reading skills
(4) Writing skillsAns:
148. Teachers help learners 'construct' their knowledge in English by
(1) giving the learners a lot of assignments and projects that will lead to much practice
(2) correcting every mistake a learner makes and giving the relevant rule of grammar as immediate feedback
(3) giving extensive language drills in which learners practice language items mechanically
(4) enabling them to see the relationship between their prior knowledge and the new knowledgeAns:
149. Reading for comprehension can be best achieved through
(1) Teaching learners to run a finger or pencil under the line being read
(2) Asking the children to read the text aloud
(3) Helping learners speak words softly while reading
(4) Learners reading silently and asking comprehension questionsAns:
150. A textbook describes a domestic scene which shows the father cooking in the kitchen, the mother coming home from work and their son sewing. What is the concept conveyed?
(1) Division of labour amoung sexes
(2) Work is worship
(3) Removing gender bias
(4) Dignity of labourAns: